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Discuss philosophical questions regarding theism (and atheism), and discuss religion as it relates to philosophy. This includes any philosophical discussions that happen to be about god, gods, or a 'higher power' or the belief of them. This also generally includes philosophical topics about organized or ritualistic mysticism or about organized, common or ritualistic beliefs in the existence of supernatural phenomenon.
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By Lagayascienza
#450202
Thanks very much, Hereandnow. I will PM you with and email address. I'd be fascinated to delve into all those texts. But I'll only start reading them once I feel that I have a handle on what Husserl himself says in his Ideas and perhaps in his later writing.

You are right that I have not read much of Kant. Most of what I have read has been second hand as background to readings in science and analytical philosophy. I will try to read his Critique of Pure Reason in full. And then some critiques of it.

Clearly, Husserl has had a major influence on Western philosophy. I'm amazed that I got through seven years of university Australia, and one in France, without, as far as I recall, ever coming across the name Husserl. Maybe, as I think you would agree, that says something about how entrenched analytical thought became in the Anglosphere.
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
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By Hereandnow
#450206
Lagayscienza wrote
Maybe, as I think you would agree, that says something about how entrenched analytical thought became in the Anglosphere.
In France and not hearing about Husserl? But surely there was Sartre and Derrida.

There is a logic that absolutely has me. Take a look at this passage from Michel Henry's Essence of Manifestation. perhaps he nails it:


It is true that a philosophy which bases itself [62] on the datum
does not thereby escape the problem of non-truth; but it possesses the
means for substituting in the place of the traditional problem of error,
the more radical one of illusion, which in fact justifies appearance
whose 'content' is always 'true', illusion resulting from the inadequate
transposition of a Sachverhalt upon a stratum of Being other than its
own. Regarding error, which is in the last analysis nothing more than
a particular case of illusion, it consists in the establishing of an inadequate relationship
between a Sachverhalt referred to in the judgment and
the corresponding Sachverhalt present in intuition.' But the phenomenon
of knowledge always and in every case refers to a datum, to an appearance
which plays the role of an ultimate foundation and whose proper meaning
must merely be understood and located on the level of Being
proper to it. For this it suffices to let the appearance appear such as it
appears and simply to read in it that which is indicated.
The absolute meaning of phenomenology thus bases itself on the
presence of the thing, that is, on its appearance. When we interpret
phenomenology as a philosophy of consciousness, this absolute meaning
translates itself into a dogmatism of intentionality which, because it
attains to Being itself, is capable of furnishing a real foundation for
the 'ontological argument'. But if the relationship of the thing to
consciousness makes the latter, insofar as it is a phenomenological datum,
an absolute, the meaning of this is quickly shown to be relative, because
every appearance as such is surrounded by a zone of shadows. The
phenomenological datum includes in itself implications whose meaning in
every case is to refer to something which is not there.
Is not the precise
meaning of phenomenology considered as method, the pursuit of the
clarification of "what is 'included' and only non-intuitively co-intended
in the sense of the cogitatum," 5 [63] thus extending the domain of
the appearance, namely the domain of life and of reality, as well as of
rationality, which finds its foundation in the appearance?


That about the "zone of shadows" is from Husserl and Heidegger. Is there such a thing as, say, "the presidency"? Or a president? Or company? I say, let's form a company, and file the proper papers, and now we are a company. But have I really somehow ushered being into existence? Yes and no. Yes, because it is now a term that activates a body of other meanings, motivates others, provides a designative term referred to and directed toward or against or even through a position of complete neutrality, that is played off of by others who take it seriously. A year or so later, we are successful, and have "employees" and we sell stocks in our company, and so on, and this has now become what Henry is referring to as a zone of shadows. Phenomenologists hold that our general world of engagement is exactly this. No, no one invented the term 'zebra' just like no one invented the term 'presidency'. But our terms evolved in a historical matrix of language (Rorty claims that all of our knowledge claims are essentially social in nature, even our rigorous scientific ones, as these emerged out of pragmatic social contexts) development.

Words literally brought into existence being, by Heidegger's df. But there is something we obviously did not do, and that is create more of "the real". Husserrlian phenomenology wants look at the structure of this truly real that is presupposed by all of the thoughtless engagement we are IN in our usual affairs. But this analysis is going to be about these affairs, and therefore it will not be IN those affairs in a significant way, and so it needs analytical vocabulary, just like forming a company required its ideas, which happened to be already in place in the world of business and practical affairs. The only differnce here, and it is a big difference, is that the whole point is to discover what is NOT a mere conventional kind of being, what Heidegger calls ontic, the preontological day to dayness and what Husserl calls the what is believed in naturalistic attitude. Being qua being is the thematic context and the terms are going to have be quasi-invented to talk about it. Making a company is not like this at all, for its concepts deal with products and productivity and this whole process, and management, and its motivations are money making, a fascination about producing something, or who knows, but it couldn't care less about foundational philosophical issues about what is means to BE at all.

Heidegger comes from a religious background, as did Kierkegaard and Nietzsche, and there is a very strong religious presence in phenomenology, and this is because when we put aside, "suspend" or "bracket" via the reduction all meanings of everydayness that would otherwise assert themselves, we lay ourselves "bare" the the original world that was there all along but simply ignored because we were so busy. Buddhists go just this way, only their method is far more radical (again, this is not the typical yoga class). Buddhists are intent on annihilating "being," Heidegger's being, that is, human dasein, to approach the pure givenness of the world.

Sounds like mysticism. Heidegger did refer to Meister Eckhart more than once in his later writing. I read pseudo Dionysus the Areopogite's Cloud of Unknowing with that original sense of wonder analytic philosophy tried to destroy in me.
Favorite Philosopher: the moon and the stars
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By Lagayascienza
#450214
I only did a one year course in French language which was all about learning oral fluency. We didn't get into philosophy but I had already read Balzac, Sartre's plays such as Huis Clos. No doubt I would have encountered Husserl if I had done a literature based course. For my two degrees in Australia I studied sciences and so did not encounter Husserl. My reading in philosophy has been informal and scattered but all of it in the analytic tradition. But I'm catching up now. :D

I need to read you post closely. Thanks again for taking the time.
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
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By Count Lucanor
#450240
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
Count Lucanor wrote

This statement needs to be rephrased to become true: "Philosophy is not just about knowledge claims, and this is paramount: ontology and epistemology are essentially a unity within philosophy".
Please clarify.
Epistemology and ontology are branches of philosophy. Phenomenalists want to dismiss ontology in favor of the supremacy of epistemology (a particular part of it concerned with the noetic moment of apprehension), so they’ll say basically that philosophy is all about epistemology. So I took your statement and gave epistemology its proper place.
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
This is disputable. The findings of science do have metaphysical and epistemological implications, even if that is not its primary incentive. Philosophy cannot be on its own without taking into account empirical sciences and science cannot do well without a philosophical foundation.
Interesting to consider. Science in the modern practice and conceptions, is mostly the interplay of quantitative values. The moon is a mass and its gravity, its brightness, its distances, the relation between it and the earth's tides, the pressure at its core due to its mas, and on and on; all of this exists in the mind of a scientist as quantitative values. If no quantification, would science even exist? One has to ask, is this really knowledge ABOUT the world? There are no quantifications over there in the trees and clouds. This is us, and then, the question turns to the structures of our mind that quantifies the world. But as units of quantified information valid only in certain contexts of their relevance, one is hard pressed to see how philosophy would have use for them, any more than it has use for taxidermy.
A big part of natural sciences finds quantitative relations that comprise deterministic systems. Another part of it, biology, is not satisfied with that, but with the level of complexity that emerges from quantitative relations. Evolution of organisms, ecological systems, human societies, they are not objects of science by purely quantitative measures. But even if they were, how does that eliminate metaphysics from our investigative tools? How does that give any supremacy to epistemology? The part of epistemology that phenomenology cares about doesn’t really get into the structures of our mind, it merely speculates with the possible consequences of mind acting as the sole structurer of reality.

No, the question is not a choice between what seems to be over there (the world with objects) or what is over here (the subject). It’s a false dilemma. The question is how can I guarantee from here, from my subjectivity, that what seems to be over there, is actually there.
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
But what about the connectivity that makes possible the affirmation the "exterior" object? Without this, the exterior even as a concept become unintelligible. You seem to doubt there is an epistemological problem. That means you have finally discovered the nature of this epistemic connection. I would like to hear about this.
But you keep saying that such connectivity is only an epistemological problem, something about how thinking connects thinking and being, but actually it is also about what is connected and what there actually is that enables such connection, in other words, how being allows thinking.
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
Not sure what a radical idealist is. I only ask how knowledge is possible. Cutting to the chase, it isn't, if any of the familiar sciences are going to determine how it works. One needs to move on, dealing only with the world as it presents itself, and in this world, I know there are things that transcend the reach of my thoughts apprehensions. The curiosity of Kant's synthetic apriority does not find its solution in confining empirical objects to subjectivity, for this is contradicted by the clear evidence before me.

Only one way to go: one has to reconceive the relation entirely, and the first thing to go is causality, for there is nothing epistemic about causality. Take any model you please, you will not even be able to imagine a delivery of the knowledge of this cup into my mind via causality.
One simply does not abandon science and moves on to philosophy, or vice versa. When one engages with the relationship between thinking and being, one cannot ignore a discipline that is committed to one stance on that relationship, not without despising it altogether. Science has a philosophical foundation, both ontological and epistemological, so you’re stuck with it when you start getting into the big inquiries. The problem with idealist phenomenology is its strict focus on what it assumes is the only thing we have access to: the correlation, not the terms of it. This gives a distorted view, both of thinking and being.

Causality might be a way humans reconstruct conceptually the key relationships between objects, in that sense it could be considered a way in which reality conforms to mind, but the properties themselves are, if the realism of science is not rejected, mind-independent, objective.
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
Of course, I have no issue with this move from one perspective to another. But what happens here is the reductive attempt to address religion solely in terms of a social analysis. Even if you go this way, social matters refer us to other matters closer to actualities. What is the need to construct or accept absurd religious narratives based on? Already we are out of the social analysis and into and existential one: the need is based on the insoluble nature of our suffering.
I don’t see where is such “reductive attempt”. To say that religion is a social phenomenon implies inserting it on a broader domain, the human domain. That is not a reductive operation, just the reaffirmation of the concrete conditions of existence of religion, from which it cannot be separated. It is a cultural practice, and as such, with all its contingencies, a dimension of the belief system. The concept of religion is, however, one that generalizes the common properties of certain practices in human communities. Undoubtedly, the social always sends us to the actual lives of the humans that constitute it and to the determining factors of their behavior, including biology, psychology and the environment, all of which can be summed up with the label of “the human condition”. So, we don’t move in or out of the social analysis to move in or out of the existential one: they intertwine. There’s a place in the analysis of religion for human suffering, an important one, Marx acknowledges it in his famous statement, but it does not refer to universal, unchanging, non-historical essences, unaffected by social conditions.
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
Shaky? Brought upon itself? No more than Einstein brought the special theory of relativity upon himself. I mean, you observe, think, see a problem, and proceed. How does does a world of things "transposition" themselves into a mind? Idealism didn't invent a problem. If it were merely invented, then refutation would be forthcoming. But as you can see, it is not. There is no way forward because the question throws our interface with the world into metaphysics.

It is not the the rest becomes a waste of time. I was clear about this: science remains what it is free of any philosophical encumbrances. Science is not metaphysics, so the twain do not meet. But it now has to be acknowledged that a metaphysics based on science is nonsense. One then has to move to phenomenology.
Einstein didn’t just get away with unfalsifiable speculations, as phenomenalists do. Things do not “transpose into a mind”, minds are actually brains, which are things, too, so there’s nothing mysterious or mystical about our senses and minds connecting with the world.

A metaphysics needs not to be inferred from science, but it can be supported by science. Materialism is the ontological base of science. Science without materialism becomes nonsense and ontological materialism without science becomes a merely speculative endeavor.
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
But you can't say the epistemic problem is solvable. The indeterminacy is speak of is, in part, already before you. Observe an object and realize that the connectivity between you and the object that produces knowledge, an "aboutness" in the things you think and say about it, cannot be explained, and this deficit is not waiting for some simmering paradigm to yield an answer; rather, it is that such an answer cannot even be imagined within the knowledge claims of existing science.
What you call the epistemic problem is merely the attempt to close the door to ontology, but the rejection of ontology on the basis of lacking direct access to being, is an ontological problem, even if it were an epistemological problem, too. When you only had metaphysics, all answers remained speculative, when science came along, it was a whole new game. It was no longer the objects before me, but the ones that I can’t even see. What is my epistemic connectivity with the electron, with magnetic fields or genetic drift? Their “aboutness” is explained and the answer only lies on solving the problem of being.
Hereandnow wrote: November 14th, 2023, 8:57 pm
Keep in mind that all one has ever and can ever affirm is phenomena. This is a matter of entailment: experience does not have an "outside" unless one can "stand" outside to affirm it. This is very close to what Wittgenstein said, and he was right. Unless you can second guess him.
I will not keep in mind something that is not true, not even generally accepted without dispute. One can affirm what’s behind phenomena once you begin to recognize the deeper relational structures between phenomena and attest their independence from the subjects. One might give a pass to phenomenological constraints from raw, first hand experience, but we can control experience systematically, we call it science, and it would be useless if objects did not conform to objects independently of our subjective experience.
Favorite Philosopher: Umberto Eco Location: Panama
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By Count Lucanor
#450241
Pattern-chaser wrote: November 16th, 2023, 9:59 am
Count Lucanor wrote: November 13th, 2023, 8:24 pm To the question: "does anything exist independently of our consciousness?" the antirealist answers: "no, nothing else exists" or "we can never know anything else exists". Another version is: "they do exist, but we can never know exactly how they are, because how they appear to us is caused by ourselves and not by the things in themselves".
Which one is the antirealist's answer? For there is a huge gulf between "no, nothing else exists" and "we can never know anything else exists". The former is an expression of certainty, while the second expresses doubt, and also aims inward, not outward. If there is such a thing as an 'antirealist', what are their characteristic beliefs? Non-existence or not-knowing-if-things-exist?
There are varieties of antirealism. Interestingly, it is still not clear whether Kant was committed to one form or the other and it often depends on his commentators.
Favorite Philosopher: Umberto Eco Location: Panama
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By Sy Borg
#450245
Hereandnow wrote: November 21st, 2023, 3:33 pm
Sy Borg wrote
It's ironic but the Sun is so ubiquitous that it's a blind spot. I appreciate your frustration with science, as it does not tend to give the kind of answers you seek. All it does is provide the information from which you can hopefully surmise your answers.

Don't underestimate quantification, though. It can be excellent for providing perspective. For instance, consider the fact that the Sun comprises 99.8% of the solar system's mass. The ancients had little concept of the true situation, with the Sun appearing to them as no bigger than the Moon. Understanding the numbers can bring a whole new perspective, that is, the solar system IS basically the Sun.

Where science misses the mark is the next step, that what we call "the Sun" or "the "Earth" are only their central, most solid components that are readily measurable. Their extended fields and atmospheres are not treated as actually part of them, even though they are permanent parts of the systems. It's the same reasoning that deludes people into thinking we are not part of the Earth, that we are apart from it and living atop it. Anything that is not readily measurable will ten to be less well addressed by science than the readily measurable.

All of this means that the Sun is perhaps not the best example of something being "ever there" because we are essentially a tiny part of it, but I take your point of how solipsism and idealism differ from phenomenology.
I don't underestimate quantification, but I do want to know what a knowledge claim in a scientific thesis really is. It is no different from any other knowledge claim, the everyday kind like knowing what shoe strings are when I tie my shoes.

I agree that it is important to distinguish phenomenology from idealism, but how this is done is difficult to follow, because one is asked both to accept that the world and its objects remain apart and distinct from me, but also that this separateness is bound to consciousness and the temporal sturcture of experience. In other words, the independence of thing cannot be absolute; it has to be connected to the observer in order to be acknowledged, for there must be something that makes knowledge possible. But again, the distance between me and this pencil is obvious, and it still stands as something that itself is not just an idea of the mind, for ideas of the mind are clearly not separated from me by this distance, making the distance a descriptive feature of the encounter. Its "over-thereness" is unchanged. Someone like Kant will point out that objects in space and time out there bear the mark of subjectivity: This cup has geometrical features that are, as he says, apriori (necessary and universal) and apriority belongs to logic and logic is not supposed to be IN the things. OR take causality: why is it impossible for an object to move be itself? Causality cannot be an empirical concept because of this impossibility applying to things "out there."

Phenomenologists take this in different ways, but it is generally taken that an object's objective standing cannot be denied as, again, it is an undeniable descriptive feature, and phenomenology is essentially descriptive.

But they are working in the tradition begun by Kant, as I see it, beginning with the insistence that to know something requires some connectivity between the known and the knower. (See how miserably analytics does with Gettier problems which simply ignores this connectivity, and sticks with science's causality. It is a tragic attempt to make sense of epistemology.)

Regarding measuring, it is interesting to consider that this essential connectivity between ourselves and the earth could very well be metaphysical, and I base this on the epistemic problem I raise over and over. First thing that comes to mind is why analytic philosophers are willing to ignore this. It is because the ONLY solution lies with metaphysics, that is, a condition that is unseen by science (and everydayness) but must hold in order to make sense of things. It goes simply like this: you spend enough time working out this simple epistemic impossibility, and you are left with seeking an accounting outside of causality (many philosophers, anglo American ones and Brits, stick with causality through thick and thin, even though it makes no sense in this matter. See those Gettier problems and attempted solutions. Patently absurd, because they forget that P, in S knows P, can never be disentangled from belief and justification. Justification IS PART of P. This is the only way to solve this). But what could this possibly be? A physical relation that is acausal??

Only one alternative, really, and this is the proximity of the known object to the knower that has no "distance at all, which the relation in the immediate apprehension and the connection is an extention of S itself: I know P because there is an abiding unity between me and P. So back to your empirical observation on what "deludes people into thinking we are not part of the Earth, that we are apart from it and living atop it." I thought this brilliant, and right, this foundational unity Keeping in mind that if we cannot be separated from the earth, nor can the earth be separated from the sun or anything else for that matter.

Of course, one has to be careful with the metaphysical claim that we are at one with the earth which is how we can know things about it, and it is important NOT to contrive a lot of bad new ageish thinking about it.
Sorry, I had a draft reply - or thought I did - and it either went away or never was.

Still, I see that you have some compelling chats going on with Lagaya and Count, so I'll let you focus on them for now and reply properly when you are less busy :)
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By Lagayascienza
#450247
I'm trying to get to grips with phenomenology right now so that I can understand where Hereandnow is coming from. It's a struggle.

I read Count Lucanor's post above with great interest. This is becoming a very interesting debate.
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
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By Sy Borg
#450248
Lagayscienza wrote: November 24th, 2023, 2:16 am I'm trying to get to grips with phenomenology right now so that I can understand where Hereandnow is coming from. It's a struggle.

I read Count Lucanor's post above with great interest. This is becoming a very interesting debate.
It's beyond my pay grade, alas. I still struggle to see phenomenology as more than an appeal to place more emphasis on kinaesthetic learning, as opposed to visual, auditory, logical, social/linguistic etc. It seems to be saying, "No, life is not about you and it's not abut the stuff outside of you. It's about the queasy mixture of both, dynamically moving in time as one, despite the appearance of separation".

Or something like that :)
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By Lagayascienza
#450258
I've always tended towards empiricism and a posteriority. I find it hard to take idealism seriously. Although I'm trying to suspend disbelief as I read up on Phenomenology. I've read arguments that suggest that all knowledge is empirical but I haven't been in a position to really weigh the arguments for and against. However, I don't think there is any ideal realm where value resides. Nor do I think the truths of mathematics are floating around in some mysterious Platonic realm. We learn about the world by living in it and, as far as I can see, experience of living in the world and testing it is how we discover what is true about the world.
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
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By Lagayascienza
#450278
I've been thinking about phenomenology and idealism and how the notions of a priori and a posteriori relate to them.

I'm wondering if an argument could not be made that so called a priori knowledge is really knowledge gained through empiricism. For example, is 1+1=2 really a priori? Let' look at what 1-ness and 2-ness actually mean. Maybe 50,000 years ago two of my ancestors, Og and Gog, were sitting outside their cave making an arrow out of a stick. But they only had one rather long stick. Maybe they didn't even have a word for "one". But maybe it occurred to them that if they cut the stick in half they would have more sticks with which to make more arrows. And, for whatever reason, they gave the big stick the name "yop" and the shorter ones the name "lop". And those words were really useful because it enabled them to communicate the idea of singular and plural. And after that, with the addition of more sticks, and more words to describe more numerous sticks, arithmetic was ready to be born. Then someone had the bright idea of making symbols for "yop" and "lop" like these: "I", "II" which they scratched onto their cave wall. There are no abstract numbers "yop" and "lop" or "I" and "II" floating around in some ideal platonic realm to which they had some magical epistemic access to. But now, on their cave wall, "II" and "II" stood for "yop" and "lop",(or, in English, one and two, and in Arabic numerals 1 and 2) and maybe that's how numbers were born. Maybe an understanding of more sticks and symbols to denote degrees of more-ness, was how arithmetic was born.

Of course, this little story, and the idea motivating it, are speculative, but if they are possible and if something like them really did happen, then maybe the a priori/a posteriori split has no basis in reality. And maybe all knowledge is a posteriori and epistemically based. And if that is true then maybe metaphysics isn't all it's cracked up to be. And if this is true, what would it mean for the types of philosophy that rely on the a priory/a posteriori split? And what would that mean for theories of value? And to get back to the OP, what would it mean for analytic and Continental understandings of ethics and religion?
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
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By Hereandnow
#450300
Count Lucanor wrote

Epistemology and ontology are branches of philosophy. Phenomenalists want to dismiss ontology in favor of the supremacy of epistemology (a particular part of it concerned with the noetic moment of apprehension), so they’ll say basically that philosophy is all about epistemology. So I took your statement and gave epistemology its proper place.
Look closer: ask, "what is ontology?" Can you, in good faith, say that what it means to be a thing at all can be disentangled from the very cognition that conceives it? I mean, it is pure folly to even suggest such a thing. There is no argument here, and analytic philosophers worth their ink already know this.
Phenomenologists, of course, do not want to dismiss ontology; Heidegger's whole thesis is about just this examination of what the question of ontology really means. But to actually be in good faith, one has to first make the move to an absolute simplicity. What is there is causality that makes for an epistemology? How do I know that I am at a rock bottom simplicity here? First, there is the simplicity of the analysis, which is absolutely authoritative: you simply cannot make a naturalistic epistemology work. Try it, sitting there, observing the computer, asking how it actually works. This is why Wittgenstein had to make it central to his Tractatus the transcendence of logic (and the world and value). Second, there is the more elaborate contexts of analysis of even the most famous analytic philosophers, like Quine. I am reading Christopher Hookway's Quine: Language, Experience and Reality, and you know, Quine is a naturalist all the way through, which simply means physics is the bottom line for him in making responsible knowledge claims, and Hookway confesses to recognizing "that the intentional content of my own psychological states is subject to indeterminacy: semantical and intentional phenomena cannot be incorporated within the science of nature." But most obviously, science itself BEGINS with just this semantical phenomena! There is no "outside" of the very semantics that conceives it, "thinks" about it, and so on.
No, the question is not a choice between what seems to be over there (the world with objects) or what is over here (the subject). It’s a false dilemma. The question is how can I guarantee from here, from my subjectivity, that what seems to be over there, is actually there.
Hmmm, you can unpack this just as well as I can. Guarantee?? You mean, confirm belief, which goes to justification, it asks about the terms of justification of S knows P. So the "false dilemma" refers to the lemma S and lemma P and you are assuming that to treat them as a proclematic is just false. How is this in any way more than simply saying, well, let's just not look at this because it doesn't make prima facie sense? Look, a brain here and a tree there relation is NOT an unreasonable basis for inquiry. It is glaringly present in its defiance of common sense. "In your face" as they say.

I so sympathize. But you cannot be ad hoc about this, just dismissing something because it is hard to think about. Quine himself had to admit the foundational indeterminacy of our existence, but I really don't think about Quine because he very articulately misses what this means. Like Heidegger or Husserl, great thinkers find themselves transfixed by their own genius.
big part of natural sciences finds quantitative relations that comprise deterministic systems. Another part of it, biology, is not satisfied with that, but with the level of complexity that emerges from quantitative relations. Evolution of organisms, ecological systems, human societies, they are not objects of science by purely quantitative measures. But even if they were, how does that eliminate metaphysics from our investigative tools? How does that give any supremacy to epistemology? The part of epistemology that phenomenology cares about doesn’t really get into the structures of our mind, it merely speculates with the possible consequences of mind acting as the sole structurer of reality.
But the idea you are responding to is not about differences between more and less deterministically grounded statements in science. The claim here is more broadly about the very nature of science itself, and this has to do with knowledge claims in general. Science deals with specific disciplines, each with their own language and insights. Phenomenology is just this: a "science" that deals with phenomena as the foundational basis for discussing human existence at the most basic level on inquiry. Just as a biological specialist might understand something like, "the increase in systemic or local amyloid deposition with age can lead to organ dysfunction. The deposited amyloid is a relatively insoluble beta-fibrillar protein with stable structures that need to be broken down"; so a contemporary phenomenologist would understand a post Heideggerian like Derrida in, "This affirmation then determines the non-center otherwise than as loss of the center. And it plays the game without security. For there is a sure freeplay: that which is limited to the substitution of given and existing, present, pieces. In absolute chance, affirmation also surrenders itself to genetic indetermination, to the seminal adventure of the trace."

The point is that once one starts actually reading phenomenology, one begins to see what it is saying. What Derrida is saying in his Structure, Sign and Play is miles away from empirical science, and on the threshold of religion. Now, since this is philosophy, the biologist's jargon is, upon investigation into what is presupposed by its terms and ideas, going to end up, in a phenomenological reduction, facing Derrida. Not just disciplined science, but all thought period! has to deal with Derrida, who is not going address Alzheimer's disease, but the possibility of conceiving of this at all.
But you keep saying that such connectivity is only an epistemological problem, something about how thinking connects thinking and being, but actually it is also about what is connected and what there actually is that enables such connection, in other words, how being allows thinking.
Well, you sound like Heidegger. You should realize that ontology are essentially the same thing, and this explains why it is impossible to make a claim in ontology without justification. A claim is inherently justificatory. This doesn't mean we can't talk about them separately at all; of course, what it means to think at all is be categorical and world. I go on about this epistemic "distance" between observer and observed because it is the most accessible and irresistible way to make the idea clear because it isn't some long, discursive argument. Straight forward and intuitive it is, that this relation is epistemically impossible. Being, therefore, has to be conceived accordingly.

How being allows thinking. Begs the question: what do you mean by being?
One simply does not abandon science and moves on to philosophy, or vice versa. When one engages with the relationship between thinking and being, one cannot ignore a discipline that is committed to one stance on that relationship, not without despising it altogether. Science has a philosophical foundation, both ontological and epistemological, so you’re stuck with it when you start getting into the big inquiries. The problem with idealist phenomenology is its strict focus on what it assumes is the only thing we have access to: the correlation, not the terms of it. This gives a distorted view, both of thinking and being.

Causality might be a way humans reconstruct conceptually the key relationships between objects, in that sense it could be considered a way in which reality conforms to mind, but the properties themselves are, if the realism of science is not rejected, mind-independent, objective.
Abandon science? No more than one abandons biology to do computer science. They are just thematically very different. Science asks what is this anomaly in oceanic currents, say; phenomenology asks about what it means to have a thought about a thing at all. Of course, to ask such a thing, one has to look at thoughts and what they are, and this means looking at the contextual nature of thoughts as they address particular issues, so science is not ignored, but recontextualized in a different inquiry, just as to speak as a physicist does is not to dismiss what a car salesperson does. It just looks at what is presupposed when one sells cars, asking about the nature of the material existence of a car or a salesperson in terms of its more basic dynamics. Such questions are presupposed when we talk about what they are in the usual way. Phenomenology (philosophy) asks of the physicist, what is presupposed in your knowledge claims? And THIS leads to discussions about epistemology and ontology. This is why physics has qua physics little to say about philosophy. Apples and oranges.

Of course, nothing is this easy as analytic philosophy moves into speculative physics, and there is justification in this, I know. What does one do, after all, with quantum theory's claim that observing an object modifies the object in the perceptual encounter? But this can only go one place: deeper into an examination of the subjective contribution. One finds phenomenology staring back at one, for the entire observational field is reducible to phenomena, and this is simply not in dispute. To know something to be true in physics is to experience it, so all eyes are on experience and its phenomena. To talk about things that are outside of experience is just bad metaphysics.

Frankly, I don't even know what mind-independent COULD mean. Perhaps you could tell me how this works, but not to forget, the telling itself is not an event that is mind independent.
I don’t see where is such “reductive attempt”. To say that religion is a social phenomenon implies inserting it on a broader domain, the human domain. That is not a reductive operation, just the reaffirmation of the concrete conditions of existence of religion, from which it cannot be separated. It is a cultural practice, and as such, with all its contingencies, a dimension of the belief system. The concept of religion is, however, one that generalizes the common properties of certain practices in human communities. Undoubtedly, the social always sends us to the actual lives of the humans that constitute it and to the determining factors of their behavior, including biology, psychology and the environment, all of which can be summed up with the label of “the human condition”. So, we don’t move in or out of the social analysis to move in or out of the existential one: they intertwine. There’s a place in the analysis of religion for human suffering, an important one, Marx acknowledges it in his famous statement, but it does not refer to universal, unchanging, non-historical essences, unaffected by social conditions.
Look at it like this: when you think at all, you are being "reductive" which simply means that the totality of what could be said is reduced to what is thematically allowed. You can't talk about plate tectonics and scuba diving at the same time, UNLESS, that is, you choose to do so in which case you would entering a special zone of associated meanings with new boundaries of relevance, but the idea is that when you think of anything in particular you are in an implcit reduction. We do this all the time, constantly, really. The phenomenological reduction is the same thing, so the question is, what is being reduced? The totality is everything in the potentiality of possibilities, so here, we bracket off what does not belong to the phenomenon qua phenomenon, dismiss what is not the phenomenon, and acknowledge the existential residua. Of course, there is no escaping the totality entirely (a point that goes directly to the essence of religion, but for now....), and this totality is all inherently phenomenological to begin with, for what isn't? What isn't? Our thinking there really are such things as taxes! That is what isn't. Or General Motors, or snow mobiles. Look, we live in a body of complex nomenclature and pragmatics, and we take all this very seriously, but analysis shows that this body of affairs (what Kierkegaard calls inheritance of the race), this culture of dealings with the world, is a construct. Phenomenology seeks the underlying foundation for this which is beyond aporia, or Cartesian doubt.

Any way, to to speak at all is a reductive operation. And there is no doubt religion is a cultural practice, but here we seek what is not a cultural practice; we seek what is really there that cultural practices ignore.

I am claiming religion's essence is twofold: ethics/value/aesthetics---all the same thing, says Wittgenstein. Why? Because they are reducible to value, the broad term encompassing a dimension of our existence that includes the good and bad of experiences and the right and wrong of actions at the basic level of analysis. Value is, if you will, the engine that "runs" ethics and aesthetics. Wittgenstein held that value is transcendental: it is in the givenness of the world, and is a nonsense word (see his Lecture on Ethics) because one cannot speak the world. One cannot speak existence qua existence for it has no contextual Archimedean point to "leverage" meaningful discussion, so to speak. It is, in Kierkegaard's words, it own presupposition. Proof lies in the pudding: examine a painful event you are having. What is the pain? It is like asking what the color yellow is. It is just "there" and this is really the plain spoken way to approach phenomenology.

The other side of religion is our foundational indeterminacy, placing our ethical concerns in radical indeterminacy, and this is why I start with epistemology, which is evidenced in the complete, unqualified failure to draw up epistemic accounts of any kind that isn't absurdly question begging. To be honest, this is so clear, I can't see the basis for resistance. The world almost literally wears it on its sleeve. Just look: there is the observer, there is the cat. What makes for epistemic possibility?
Einstein didn’t just get away with unfalsifiable speculations, as phenomenalists do. Things do not “transpose into a mind”, minds are actually brains, which are things, too, so there’s nothing mysterious or mystical about our senses and minds connecting with the world.

A metaphysics needs not to be inferred from science, but it can be supported by science. Materialism is the ontological base of science. Science without materialism becomes nonsense and ontological materialism without science becomes a merely speculative endeavor.
Yes, good Count, but you have to do more than SAY it is unfalsifiable speculation. I mean, first, this is self contradictory. But never mind. Explain this. I won't do all your work for you. Just tell me. No reason to keep this a secret. How does a simple knowledge relationship work according to philosophical materialist assumptions? In good faith! Not just throwing stones.
What you call the epistemic problem is merely the attempt to close the door to ontology, but the rejection of ontology on the basis of lacking direct access to being, is an ontological problem, even if it were an epistemological problem, too. When you only had metaphysics, all answers remained speculative, when science came along, it was a whole new game. It was no longer the objects before me, but the ones that I can’t even see. What is my epistemic connectivity with the electron, with magnetic fields or genetic drift? Their “aboutness” is explained and the answer only lies on solving the problem of being.
But what are you calling ontology? No one rejects ontology, which is absurd. What is rejected is a non phenomenological ontology. Never been witnessed, such a thing. It would be like claiming you could step outside of experience and affirm reality non-experientially. What does this mean? The notion of direct access to being? But you already have this, IN the phenomenological presence of the things around you. What separates you is the interpretative error that steps in when you try to speak its presence. This is essentially what Wittgenstein's Tractatus is saying. Phenomenologists, including myself, claim that if one does this, practice this method, the entire horizon of what lies before one undergoes a novel restructuring.

Science DID come along, yes. And new game, but science's game is not philosophy's. The latter is about the presuppositions of the former. If not this, then nothing at all.

Electrons? Talk like this is pre-analytical. But it is, as you say, the "aboutness" that is in question. And the problem of being. See Heidegger. He write a book on being: Being and Time.
I will not keep in mind something that is not true, not even generally accepted without dispute. One can affirm what’s behind phenomena once you begin to recognize the deeper relational structures between phenomena and attest their independence from the subjects. One might give a pass to phenomenological constraints from raw, first hand experience, but we can control experience systematically, we call it science, and it would be useless if objects did not conform to objects independently of our subjective experience.
Now there is a LOT in that. Paragraphs to respond. But I'm tired. I said, "Keep in mind that all one has ever and can ever affirm is phenomena," and you said, that's not true. This is hard to see, I'll grant you, but really just awfully hard if you don't do the reading. The statement I made was meant to be simple. True ontology: all one can possibly witness is the phenomenon. To move beyond the phenomenon behind it, you would have move beyond the language gives words like "behind" meaning; you would have to move beyond meaning, for meanings are what WE do and make. There are no meanings, in the materialist setting, "out there" and it is materialism that tells me this! You do see this, don't you? Materialism has. no. epistemic. features. at all. No surprise, really, because no one has ever seen "material" in this sense. It is not observable, and by this I am making the very strong claim: it is impossible to make an observation like this.
I know you want to say when science makes observational discovery, and names its objects and their behavior, we thereby have an intimacy with their true nature. But this process in done IN a matrix of a phenomenological setting, and this condition is prior to anything science can say. Phenomenonology studies this setting. It doesn't deny anything science at all! It simply talks about something else, something more basic.
Favorite Philosopher: the moon and the stars
User avatar
By Hereandnow
#450305
Lagayscienza wrote

I'm wondering if an argument could not be made that so called a priori knowledge is really knowledge gained through empiricism. For example, is 1+1=2 really a priori? Let' look at what 1-ness and 2-ness actually mean. Maybe 50,000 years ago two of my ancestors, Og and Gog, were sitting outside their cave making an arrow out of a stick. But they only had one rather long stick. Maybe they didn't even have a word for "one". But maybe it occurred to them that if they cut the stick in half they would have more sticks with which to make more arrows. And, for whatever reason, they gave the big stick the name "yop" and the shorter ones the name "lop". And those words were really useful because it enabled them to communicate the idea of singular and plural. And after that, with the addition of more sticks, and more words to describe more numerous sticks, arithmetic was ready to be born. Then someone had the bright idea of making symbols for "yop" and "lop" like these: "I", "II" which they scratched onto their cave wall. There are no abstract numbers "yop" and "lop" or "I" and "II" floating around in some ideal platonic realm to which they had some magical epistemic access to. But now, on their cave wall, "II" and "II" stood for "yop" and "lop",(or, in English, one and two, and in Arabic numerals 1 and 2) and maybe that's how numbers were born. Maybe an understanding of more sticks and symbols to denote degrees of more-ness, was how arithmetic was born.
There is no doubt that something like that actually happened, meaning there was in the process of discovery this essential naming and communicated. But on Kant: He makes it clear that apriority is something discovered IN empirical statements and any and all statements, really. Experience is worldly, but if you look at the form of the judgments we make about the world, we find elements that are necessary and universal. So I say, Look, there is a squirrel! and this statement has as a judgment the affirmative, singular, assertoric and categorical (I think that's right) features; and a little later he will construe these as categories, which are the pure forms. You don't actually SEE this form, but it is an unmistakable logical dimension of the proposition. If you want to go into this, you have to read his Table of Categories. He does at times annoyingly assume everyone knows what logicians know and one just has to have patience and world it out. Parts I find just maddening.

But the idea is that however language came to be what it is, here is how its structure reveals itself in analysis, and there are these impossible apriori properties that stand out. Impossible because they are not found in empirical discovery, but are unmistakable all the same, this notion of necessity, where does it come from? Can't say. It is simply there in the givenness of the judgment. What is in the givenness of things can't be reduced to more talk about this and that; historical derivations are not part of the analysis of this for the historical account simply presupposes the very thing being analyzed, I mean, one has to think in propositional form to speak of history, and this is question begging. These forms defy analysis. So they are transcendental, come from a source outside empirical and analytical access.

Now, you could say that such forms are also in the analysis of the structure, as it is with history, and there is simply no way to avoid this foundational question begging. True. Even this focused analysis stands at a loss, hence the term transcendental. Kant knew he was putting together a theory that was itself about the impossible to conceive, for one cannot conceive of the essence of what it is to conceive.
Favorite Philosopher: the moon and the stars
User avatar
By Lagayascienza
#450310
Hereandnow wrote: November 25th, 2023, 11:31 am
Lagayscienza wrote

I'm wondering if an argument could not be made that so called a priori knowledge is really knowledge gained through empiricism. For example, is 1+1=2 really a priori? Let' look at what 1-ness and 2-ness actually mean. Maybe 50,000 years ago two of my ancestors, Og and Gog, were sitting outside their cave making an arrow out of a stick. But they only had one rather long stick. Maybe they didn't even have a word for "one". But maybe it occurred to them that if they cut the stick in half they would have more sticks with which to make more arrows. And, for whatever reason, they gave the big stick the name "yop" and the shorter ones the name "lop". And those words were really useful because it enabled them to communicate the idea of singular and plural. And after that, with the addition of more sticks, and more words to describe more numerous sticks, arithmetic was ready to be born. Then someone had the bright idea of making symbols for "yop" and "lop" like these: "I", "II" which they scratched onto their cave wall. There are no abstract numbers "yop" and "lop" or "I" and "II" floating around in some ideal platonic realm to which they had some magical epistemic access to. But now, on their cave wall, "II" and "II" stood for "yop" and "lop",(or, in English, one and two, and in Arabic numerals 1 and 2) and maybe that's how numbers were born. Maybe an understanding of more sticks and symbols to denote degrees of more-ness, was how arithmetic was born.
There is no doubt that something like that actually happened, meaning there was in the process of discovery this essential naming and communicated. But on Kant: He makes it clear that apriority is something discovered IN empirical statements and any and all statements, really. Experience is worldly, but if you look at the form of the judgments we make about the world, we find elements that are necessary and universal. So I say, Look, there is a squirrel! and this statement has as a judgment the affirmative, singular, assertoric and categorical (I think that's right) features; and a little later he will construe these as categories, which are the pure forms. You don't actually SEE this form, but it is an unmistakable logical dimension of the proposition. If you want to go into this, you have to read his Table of Categories. He does at times annoyingly assume everyone knows what logicians know and one just has to have patience and world it out. Parts I find just maddening.

But the idea is that however language came to be what it is, here is how its structure reveals itself in analysis, and there are these impossible apriori properties that stand out. Impossible because they are not found in empirical discovery, but are unmistakable all the same, this notion of necessity, where does it come from? Can't say. It is simply there in the givenness of the judgment. What is in the givenness of things can't be reduced to more talk about this and that; historical derivations are not part of the analysis of this for the historical account simply presupposes the very thing being analyzed, I mean, one has to think in propositional form to speak of history, and this is question begging. These forms defy analysis. So they are transcendental, come from a source outside empirical and analytical access.

Now, you could say that such forms are also in the analysis of the structure, as it is with history, and there is simply no way to avoid this foundational question begging. True. Even this focused analysis stands at a loss, hence the term transcendental. Kant knew he was putting together a theory that was itself about the impossible to conceive, for one cannot conceive of the essence of what it is to conceive.
………………………………………………………………………………..
Thanks for your response, Hereandnow.

I'm still reading Husserl’s Ideas in conjunction with Moran’s Introduction to Phenomenology. And I’ve done a sort of crash course over the last few days on Kant and his idealism. It's hard going but I think I get it.

I'm not yet totally convinced that the a priori/a posteriori split is real. That is, I'm not entirely convinced that all knowledge is not acquired a posteriori, through empirical discovery. I will enlarge later on why I have doubts. However, for now, I will just ask this: If it were true that all knowledge is acquired a posteriori, that is empirically, as a result of our living in the world, rather than by our plugging into some transcendental realm of the ideal, then where would that leave phenomenology? I hope this does not seem like a silly, annoying undergraduate question because I think a clear answer to it will help us understand phenomenology. So, to be clear, I'm not asking whether we it is true or not that there is this a priori/a posteriori split. I'm asking that we put that question aside for now and imagine that all knowledge is acquired empirically. What would that mean for phenomenology?
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
User avatar
By Lagayascienza
#450315
As well as my readings in (and about) Husserl' transcendental-phenomenology, I've been delving into the Oxford Handbook of Skepticism. I've also been looking onto the a priori/a posteriori, the analytic/synthetic and the necessary/contingent distinctions. I’d like to take phenomenology seriously, but the skeptic monkey on my shoulder won’t leave off. It seems to me that these distinctions, the a priori/a posteriori etcetera, are important if I am to understand how/whether/why a transcendental realm of necessary truths could/must exist and how we would have epistemic access to it. Does phenomenology depends on this realm? I'm not sure about Heidegger and the rest who developed their own versions of phenomenology after Husserl but, as far as I can tell, it seems to be required for Husserl. But I may be misunderstanding him with all his talk of essence and spirit. He's so hard to understand! One minute he's objective/scientific the next he's subjective/transcendental/spiritual.

If I were satisfied that a transcendent realm of ideal truths could exist, and if phenomenology does indeed depend on its existence, then that would be fascinating, and perhaps I could take phenomenology on board. But if phenomenology depends on it, and if I cannot believe such a transcendental realm of a priori truth exists, then that would make things difficult.

However, I may be able to put that aside and still ask whether phenomenology offers some useful insights and how it would have practical value in elucidating questions such as the nature of value and of religion. And I may well find that, for those who took from Husserl what they needed, and developed their own versions of phenomenology, a transcendental realm is not required. That would make things much easier for me.
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
User avatar
By Lagayascienza
#450318
I said above:
If I were satisfied that a transcendent realm of ideal truths does/could exist, and if phenomenology does indeed depend on its existence, then that would be fascinating, and perhaps I could take phenomenology on board.

However, we would still need an explanation of how we have epistemic access to this transcendental realm of ideal a priori truth. And this requirement is not just in respect of phenomenology.
Favorite Philosopher: Hume Nietzsche Location: Antipodes
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