GE Morton wrote:Not enough info. Is the rate of gun crime in your town high?
As far as I'm aware there is no gun crime in my town and virtually nobody owns a gun. I don't know whether those two things are in any way related. Perhaps not. I presume there are some farmers here or there who own shotguns and a very small number of people who use guns recreationally, but I doubt whether anybody has a gun in their house for the purpose of self defence. The idea would be considered absurd, like something from a Hollywood movie. Maybe it's irrational to consider it absurd and we should all arm ourselves. But I think that would illegal. Maybe our individual rights are being unjustifiably infringed by the fact that it is illegal, even if we choose not to do it.
Yes (though I'm dubious of those statistics). Gun crimes and threats are obviously not committed with guns kept for defensive purposes. If few people in a community are ever victims of gun crimes or threats, they will not care how many people in the community own guns.
You might think me/us irrational, but I would care very much and I'm pretty sure almost everyone I know would too. I would very much not like it to become the norm in the society where I live for a large proportion of the population to own guns because I have the irrational feeling (which perhaps you would show me is not backed by hard evidence) that if that became the norm then the gun crime would eventually follow. "How could the gun crime possibly follow if all those guns are owned for the purpose of defence?" you might ask. I don't know. I guess I'm being irrational to think that it would?
But if I were a criminal and guns became more freely available and I knew that a large proportion of the people I plan on wronging were armed, and the police were also routinely armed with guns, I think I'd seriously consider arming myself with a gun. If not, given the risks of carrying a gun (of getting caught carrying it and of the consequences if I use it on somebody), I probably would be less inclined to do so. You might claim that since I'm not a criminal I don't share any of their fears or other motives so it's not valid for me to try to put myself in their position like this. If you did claim that I'd disagree.
No, it doesn't make sense. The rational way to deal with that problem is to remove those who commit knife crimes from the streets, and keep them off the streets. Then the perceived need to carry defensive knives will abate.
That is what does in fact happen. When a person with a knife stabs somebody else they are imprisoned. So far, in London, at least according to News reports, this has not stopped others from carrying knives. I guess you might say that it would do if those people were put in prison for the rest of their lives (or killed) rather than just two or three decades.
Well, how does one de-escalate unless by banning guns? The only other way I can think of is by reducing the fear of crime. The only way to accomplish that is by reducing the actual incidence of crime, and the only way to accomplish that is to remove criminals from the streets
Obviously removing criminals from the streets is a way to reduce the incidence of crime, but is it really the only way to reduce the incidence of crime? Is there really no role at all for actions which reduce the motivation to commit crime and try to create an environment in which crime is less likely to happen, other than by imprisoning people after the crime has been committed? I understand that, due to your views on individual liberty, you would think it immoral to take any of those actions if they in any way impose restrictions on law abiding people against their will (by, for example, taxing them a bit more or restricting their liberties before a crime has been committed) but that's different from the issue of whether those actions might be in any way effective.
That first statement is a non sequitur. The streets would not be awash with criminals, with or without guns, if whatever factors predispose or provoke criminal behavior are rare or absent. But it is true that criminals will use guns if they are easier to obtain.
And if there are a very, very large number of legally owned guns, bought for the purpose of defence, do you think that makes guns easier to obtain by criminals? Or harder? Or makes no difference at all?
They are the same species, but I'm not sure about the fears and motivations. I suspect those are quite different.
We all have a variety of motivations for our actions. But such things as acquisitiveness and fear are, I would say, common to criminals and non-criminals to a large degree. Illegally carrying either a knife or a gun, or any other weapon, is a risk. The more effective the weapon, the greater the risk. I think criminals, just like me, are not without the ability to assess risk versus reward; cost versus benefit.
The only reason nations agree to do so, and actually do so, is because those treaties always have some verification mechanism ("trust but verify"). No such agreement with criminals is possible --- or even conceivable --- and no method of verification is available. A government is an organized body that speaks with one voice. Criminals are free agents, not organized, not unified, and 99% of them would not even come to the table, much less agree to any "arms limitation" proposal.
Yes, fair point.
When discussing this subject previously I have usually come to the conclusion that in the US, at least, there is no point in trying to reduce the number of guns in circulation for the reasons you've give here and it probably is best for law abiding US citizens to just make sure they're armed at least as well as the criminals, to have armed guards posted in schools and so on, and that the incidence of gun crime is a price worth paying for the preservation of individual liberty. That's the way it works there. Each to their own.