Re: What could make morality objective?
Posted: March 9th, 2020, 9:41 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑March 9th, 2020, 6:21 am Just to tidy up and clarify my previous post.Sarcasm notwithstanding, you're getting closer to understanding the argument here. But your straw-man argument above makes several mistakes.
It has been argued that claims about moral rightness and wrongness are about consistency with goals derived from axioms requiring no justification.
Axiom: Homosexuals are vermin.
Goal: Rid ourselves of vermin.
Advisory assertion: If we want to rid ourselves of vermin, then we [should/ought to/need to/must] rid ourselves of homosexuals.
This assertion is objective, because it has public truth conditions. And because it's about morality, then supposedly it's a 'moral assertion'.
"Homosexuals are vermin" cannot be an axiom in a moral theory, for 2 reasons. First, the axiom must express the aim or goal of the theory. Your "axiom" does not; it is merely a disparaging epithet. Secondly, axioms must be self-evident: widely, if not universally, understood and accepted as true (as you said, "requiring no justification"). Your "axiom" doesn't even have a truth value.
To clarify: "Moral" rules and principles are rules and principles governing interactions between agents in a social setting, having the aim of maximizing welfare for all agents (by reducing injuries and losses resulting from destructive interactions between agents, and fostering interactions which increase welfare for one or more agents).
The aim of a moral theory is to identify and develop those principles and rules in a systematic way (i.e., via methods that are rationally defensible).
Our thinking the axiom is morally wrong and repulsive (as I do) has no bearing on the nominal objectivity of the advisory assertion.You're right, and that can be generalized: Agreement or disagreement with a goal has no bearing on the objectivity of any advisories proffered in support of that goal.
Our choice of a moral axiom, how ever we justify it, is subjective - a matter of opinion. And that single fact demolishes the argument for moral objectivity, ab initio.Well, if we are able to justify it it cannot be subjective (I cannot "justify" my preference for chocolate over vanilla ice cream). And you just contradicted yourself. If Y is a moral goal, then by your own admission, advisories which demonstrably advance that goal are both moral and objective. Hence we have "moral objectivity."
You're confusing failing to share a goal with a lack of objectivity of proposed means to that goal.
You could re-state your argument above thus:
1. AXIOM: To develop rules and principles governing interactions between agents in a social setting, with the aim of ridding the world of homosexuals.
2. We ought yo kill any homosexual we encounter.
3. Etc.
But of course, the aim stated is hardly universally or widely shared, is not self-evident. Indeed, I'd argue that any rules or principles governing interactions between agents that did not have the aim I gave above would not be "moral" rules; that that aim is part of the definition of "moral." But the rules that ensue from your theory will (or can be) objective.