Hi,
Ecurb,
Thank you for your replies!
It's probably worth noting,
the Original Post (OP) contains specific mathematical definitions for three categories of governments:
(1) big non-local governments
(2) small local governments (or pseudo-governments)
(3) medium governments (i.e. governments that don't fall into either of the above two categories).
Ecurb wrote: ↑March 13th, 2023, 9:16 pm
In the U.S., the Feds supply less than 10% of public school funding. However, the biggest source of funding is state government (although local government supplies almost the same amount). In many cases. State government cannot really be considered local.
This is not true in my town. The majority of funding for our schools comes from in town without going through the state (or feds) first. I know because I was an unpaid member of the Board of Ed for over three years. It seems like a moot point (and likely an off-topic one) to me in regard to the topic and question at hand, though. The question in this topic is whether taxation by big non-local governments is consensual.
If you want to make a new topic to discuss one of the following other questions, please feel free:
-
"Can schools be funded locally without relying on taxes from big non-local governments?"
-
"Can schools be funded consensually?"
-
"Can we end world hunger without committing large-scale organized non-defensive violence against peaceful humans?"
etc.
Correct me if I am missing something, but I don't see how the answer to any of those questions would change or affect the answer to the titular question:
Is taxation by big non-local governments non-consensual or consensual?
It might worth noting that if someone forces me against my will at gunpoint to buy and eat a banana, it's not consensual even though I got a banana out of it, even if I like a bananas. The fact that the huge expensive violent federal government happens to spend its violently stolen money on kickbacks to campaign financers and wealthy special interests and things like the violent expensive war on drugs like marijuana and the prison industrial complex and things like "Pakistanian Gender Studies", instead of giving me delicious bananas (or other things I might like), in no way affects whether it is consensual or not. It's not a coincidence that rapists happen to be bad in bed and ungenerous lovers, since they don't need to earn their sex partners' affection, but to think it's relevant is this thread would be to put the cart before the horse and mistake a correlated effect as being a cause or even a necessary condition which it's not. Even good sex from a generous love is rape if is not consensual. If the rapist gives you a cupcake afterwards, it's still not consensual; you're just a rape victim with a cupcake.
Ecurb wrote: ↑March 13th, 2023, 9:07 pm
First, if taxation is non-consensual (as it clearly is in many cases), it is equally so whether it is local or non-local. If you want to argue for localized government, there must be some other rationale.
I am
not making the argument that taxes by local governments are consensual, let alone medium-sized non-local governments. In fact, I certainly think the typical local mafia protection racket is
not consensual.
If you make a new topic arguing that local taxes are non-consensual too, it's likely I would agree with your argument. Of course, if others posted good counter-arguments it's possible my conclusions might end up somewhere else and/or change.
Similarly, I could make the argument that "all dogs are X". Maybe you think "all mammals are X" or maybe you think "all dogs are X and almost all mammals are X". If so, then you still agree with me. It's not an objection. It's just an agreement with quasi-off-topic extra information.
Nonetheless, in analogy, I'm not talking about mammals; I'm talking about dogs. If we cannot agree whether all dogs are X, we certainly cannot agree if all mammals are.
So let me ask again:
Is taxation by big non-local governments non-consensual or consensual?
Ecurb wrote: ↑March 13th, 2023, 9:07 pm
The bit about rights highlighted in your last post was directed at GE, who is obsessed with rights. The point is that all rights are nothing more than obligations on the part of other people (the right to life obliges others not to kill you, and that's the only thing it does).
I'm not sure what you mean by "rights". Can you define "rights" as you use the term?
Just to help me understand what you mean by the term, when marital rape was legal in the USA, did husbands have a right to rape their wives? That's not a rhetorical question. I'm asking so I can understand what you mean by the word "rights".
Ecurb wrote: ↑March 13th, 2023, 9:07 pm
Contracts also obligate other people (legally and morally) to do what they have contracted to do
I don't agree, and I don't understand the relevance.
I don't believe in any kind of
'moral obligation'.
I don't believe immorality/evil exists, but more importantly I don't see how that fact (or the counter-claim to it) or anything to do with so-called "morality" at all is relevant to the topic of whether or not taxation by big non-local government is consensual.
Similarly, I'm likewise doubtful that
'legal obligations' are relevant. That is, assuming I understand what you mean by 'legal obligation'. To be sure I do, let me ask: Did the family that hid Anne Frank and her family in their attic have a legal obligation to not do that and instead turn Anne Frank and her family in to the government (which, sadly, they ultimately did)? Did taxpayers in Nazi Germany have a legal obligation to pay taxes to the Nazi government? Was that taxation consensual? If not, what about the taxes paid by German taxpayers in the years right before Hitler was elected? Were those taxes consensual?
Ecurb wrote: ↑March 13th, 2023, 9:07 pm
If a "social contract" obliges people to honor rights (to refrain from stealing, for example), then it is similar to other, signed contracts.
Sorry, with respect and politeness, I have no idea what you mean by the above sentence. As I use the terms, the above sentence is self-contradictory. As I use the terms, the phrase
'unsigned contract' is a self-contradicting oxymoron.
To re-state what I already posted in an earlier post:
As I use the terms, even a very explicit handshake agreement is absolutely
not a contract.
Even a piece of paper in which one party has written down their understanding of the agreement and shown it to other who themselves read it in full is
not a contract, even though it is in writing and has been read by both parties. One could call it a "draft contract" while waiting for one or more parties to sign it.
Thank you,
Scott