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Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 4th, 2020, 1:57 pm
by Terrapin Station
So again, if you're claiming that there's no evidence that it occurs elsewhere, then you're saying all evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind.

In other words, you're claiming that all available evidence shows that it occurs in the mind, and you're saying that no available evidence shows that it occurs elsewhere than the mind.

"All available evidence shows that it occurs in the mind" is a "positive" claim. It's not a negative claim.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 4th, 2020, 1:59 pm
by GE Morton
Terrapin Station wrote: April 4th, 2020, 1:53 pm
GE Morton wrote: April 4th, 2020, 12:50 pm

No.
Correct.

In other words, If all available evidence shows that P, then no available evidence shows that not-P.
Well, those are the same words, but, yes, that is correct.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 4th, 2020, 2:02 pm
by GE Morton
Terrapin Station wrote: April 4th, 2020, 1:57 pm So again, if you're claiming that there's no evidence that it occurs elsewhere, then you're saying all evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind.

In other words, you're claiming that all available evidence shows that it occurs in the mind, and you're saying that no available evidence shows that it occurs elsewhere than the mind.

"All available evidence shows that it occurs in the mind" is a "positive" claim. It's not a negative claim.
Every positive claim implies a negative one, in this case, "There is no evidence that it occurs elsewhere."

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 4th, 2020, 2:56 pm
by Terrapin Station
GE Morton wrote: April 4th, 2020, 2:02 pm
Terrapin Station wrote: April 4th, 2020, 1:57 pm So again, if you're claiming that there's no evidence that it occurs elsewhere, then you're saying all evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind.

In other words, you're claiming that all available evidence shows that it occurs in the mind, and you're saying that no available evidence shows that it occurs elsewhere than the mind.

"All available evidence shows that it occurs in the mind" is a "positive" claim. It's not a negative claim.
Every positive claim implies a negative one, in this case, "There is no evidence that it occurs elsewhere."
Sure, and vice versa, hence a reason that the "burden of proof" norm is stupid.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 4th, 2020, 6:23 pm
by GE Morton
Terrapin Station wrote: April 4th, 2020, 2:56 pm
Sure, and vice versa, hence a reason that the "burden of proof" norm is stupid.
Really? "There are aliens among us posing as humans."

The burden of proof lies not with he who makes that claim? It falls to the rest of us to disprove it? It is not the government's burden to prove a defendant guilty of the crime it has charged, but the defendant's burden to prove his innocence?

If that norm is stupid, then those are the alternatives remaining. The reason it is not "stupid" is because the alternative requires proving a negative, which is usually difficult and if it is a universal, impossible.

Also, previously you said, "If you're claiming that there's no evidence that it occurs elsewhere, then you're saying all evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind."

I assume you now agree your conclusion --- "it occurs only in the mind" --- does not follow from, "There is no evidence it occurs elsewhere."

Yes?

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 4:06 am
by Peter Holmes
GE Morton wrote: April 2nd, 2020, 9:08 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: April 2nd, 2020, 2:58 am
This is patent nonsense. Things that exist are different from terms or constructs with descriptive or explanatory utility. A thing that exists has no decriptive or explanatory utility. You're conflating the way things are with what we say about them.
Peter, you don't seem to grasp that the only evidence you have for "the way things are" is the phenomena that occurs in your own mind when you see, feel, hear (etc.) something. If you understand "reality" or "the way things are" to be anything beyond that, you're speaking of something you know nothing about, and cannot possibly know anything about. You're indulging in mysticism.

You can, of course, hypothesize an external reality as the cause of those sensory experiences that you have. That is a perfectly reasonable hypothesis, and some version of it is indispensible if we hope to explain those experiences. But that hypothesized reality remains a hypothetical one, not one of which you, or anyone, can claim direct knowledge.

And yes, I conflate "the way things are" with what we say about them. All that we know, or can know, about what exists, what is real, WITHOUT the intervention of concepts, words, theories, all of which are linguistic constructs, are those sensory phenomena. We need no theories, or even language, to be certain that those exist (as Descartes realized). But if we claim that is all that exists we become solipsists, the sole inhabitants of a very small universe that is utterly inexplicable.

So we hypothesize a much larger universe, and populate it with all manner of entities, processes, "natural laws," and such abstract entities as space, time, universals, minds, gods, demons, spirits, and endless other constructs, all of which aim to help bring some order, some predictability, to the kaleidoscope of sensory phenomena.

When you say, "You're conflating the way things are with what we say about them," you imply that you have some knowledge of "the way things are" that differs from "what we say about them." You have no such knowledge, and cannot. And of course, your statement is itself an example of "what we say" about "reality."

Yes, reality is what we say it is --- provided that what we say improves our understanding of what we perceive.
So, back to the issue: demonstrate that abstract things exist. Just saying they do is useless. The burden of proof is yours.
I've given several examples of that earlier. E.g., that Alfie can find his keys after Annabelle tells him where they are demonstrates that knowledge exists. You dismiss that because you've decided to restrict the word "exists" to a certain class of entities only, and demand that propositions asserting entities of other classes satisfy the truth conditions applicable to your "pet" class --- a restriction that is arbitrary, pointless, and woefully at odds with the everyday uses of that term.
Oh, please. So did the ether and miasma 'exist' until a better explanation came along? This is rubbish.
Nope. Because we now have better explanations, and when you adopt a new explanatory theory for some realm of phenomena the entities and processes postulated by the old theory get banished from the universe --- not only in the present, but for all time, because we naively believe the current theory is timeless and universal (which it almost certainly will eventually prove not to be).
And nearly all ontologies are mystical, but yours, according to which invented things are real, is limpidly rational. Oh-kay.
An ontology is mystical if presumes entities or realms of them inaccessible to direct experience. Which is not the same as postulating entities that contribute to undestanding and predicting that experience.
Please demonstrate the existence of an abstract thing such as truth, knowledge, beauty or justice.
Answered above. But of course, I can't demonstate it if you stubbornly refuse to count anything as a demonstration other than evidence applicable to your pet class of existents. You foreclose all answers a priori.
If they're just like trees and rocks, it should be a doddle. But, of course, they aren't just like trees and rocks, and you can't demonstrate their existence.
Yes, they are just like trees and rocks, insofar as their existence is established by the explanatory value they have. Trees and rocks are themselves conceptual constructs, invented to explain a large class of regularities and relationships in our phenomenal experience.
And there's the rub. A large majority of people on the earth do indeed think gods and other invented supernatural things explain the universe and what happens. So, in your ridiculous world, gods and demons, etc, are real. (Are you for real? I have my suspicions.)
Not in MY world. But they are in theirs. Which is the "real" world? Whichever one provides, at the moment, the better, more comprehensive, more reliable explanation of the phenomena of experience. That may now be our world. But it will surely not be considered "real" 10,000 years from now (if humans are still around by then).
In response to this post setting out a naively empiricist skepticism that used to be fashionable a few decades ago, I think the following, that I posted at another forum, addresses the irrationality of saying 'we can never know what reality is really like'.

Are all models wrong?

George Box claimed that ‘All models are wrong but some are useful’ - which begs the question: from which model can we deduce that all models are wrong? But, leaving that aside, there are other problems with the claim.

1 To clarify: Box probably didn’t mean all models are immoral. He likely used the word wrong to mean incorrect, inaccurate, imprecise, incomplete, imperfect – and so on. (Unbelievably, it seems necessary to point out that we can use the words right and wrong non-morally.)

2 A model can be said to be wrong only if it makes sense to say it could be right. But what would a model, map or description that is right – correct, accurate, precise, complete or perfect – look like? How much and what kind of information would it have to contain? The absurdity of these questions exposes the absurdity of the claim that all models are wrong.

3 We could not model a reality or map a domain to which we have no access, or of which we have no knowledge or information. In that case, any model or map we produce would be a fiction or fantasy, and its usefulness would be entirely fortuitous.

4 The solipsistic claim that we know or can know nothing about what we call reality is an affectation exposed at every turn by performative contradictions, of which the use of language to express the claim is merely one.

The fact is that all models are models – full stop. They are not and cannot be the things that they model or describe, which are features of reality. A factual assertion and its truth-value – and any assessment of ‘rightness’, accuracy, precision, completeness or perfection – can exist only within a descriptive context. So the claim that all models are wrong is incoherent.

To say we have no objective standard by which to assess how well a model describes reality, or that we can’t know if our claims are true or false, is to misconstrue the actual relationship – and radical separation – between a description and the described. The myth of propositions, the JTB definition of knowledge, correspondence theories, and truth-maker/truth-bearer ideas all demonstrate the conflation of what we say with what we say it about – as does the course of foundationalism – its existence and rejection.

All posited foundations for what we know – and (therefore) the truth of what we say – are merely models. What we call facts are such models, and they constitute the objective knowledge we express in language. We build and repair this knowledge on foundations and with materials of our own making. But that does not mean the edifice has no foundation, and so must be shaky. That we can always say more does not mean we can never say enough.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 7:32 am
by Terrapin Station
GE Morton wrote: April 4th, 2020, 6:23 pm
Terrapin Station wrote: April 4th, 2020, 2:56 pm
Sure, and vice versa, hence a reason that the "burden of proof" norm is stupid.
Really? "There are aliens among us posing as humans."

The burden of proof lies not with he who makes that claim? It falls to the rest of us to disprove it?
So first, again, any claim can be stated "positively" or "negatively." So we can't go by that, really. You can personally attempt to require whatever you like when it comes to a claim like that. Other people are free to not care about your attempt. There are burden of proof conventions, but it's not wrong to be unconventional. Not right to be conventional.
It is not the government's burden to prove a defendant guilty of the crime it has charged, but the defendant's burden to prove his innocence?
That depends on the law that happens to be in place in a given locality. Again, of course, this is just a convention, and different localities, at different points in time, have had different conventions. I happen to like the "innocent until proven guilty" convention in this case, but it's not correct or incorrect. It's just a convention because of preferences that we have.
If that norm is stupid
Yes, it's stupid re the "positive"/"negative" silliness you were appealing to.
The reason it is not "stupid" is because the alternative requires proving a negative,
First off, no empirical claim is literally provable, and mathematical and logical claims are only provable relative to a particular system that we've constructed. What matters is the reasons we have to believe a given claim. They'll never be definitive or infallible, but some reasons are such that individuals will decide that they're good justifications for believing one claim over contrary claims. The legal system uses "proof" in this sense, by the way. It's not literal proof so that the conclusion can't possibly be wrong. It's just evidence that's considered good enough to buy one claim over a contrary claim.
which is usually difficult and if it is a universal, impossible.
So given the fact that empirical claims are not provable period, and mathematical/logical claims are simply saying something about the system at hand, we can see that universal "negative" claims are not a problem for epistemology even when they're open-ended. It simply a matter of whether they are better reasons to believe the universal negative claim than otherwise.

Of course, universal negatives are no problem at all when they pick out something that isn't open-ended, because then we can check all entities picked out by the claim. Open-ended positive claims are more of a challenge epistemologically in that case.
Also, previously you said, "If you're claiming that there's no evidence that it occurs elsewhere, then you're saying all evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind."

I assume you now agree your conclusion --- "it occurs only in the mind" --- does not follow from, "There is no evidence it occurs elsewhere."
The conclusion is "All evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind."

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 10:15 am
by Peter Holmes
Terrapin Station wrote: April 5th, 2020, 7:32 am
First off, no empirical claim is literally provable, and mathematical and logical claims are only provable relative to a particular system that we've constructed. What matters is the reasons we have to believe a given claim. They'll never be definitive or infallible, but some reasons are such that individuals will decide that they're good justifications for believing one claim over contrary claims. The legal system uses "proof" in this sense, by the way. It's not literal proof so that the conclusion can't possibly be wrong. It's just evidence that's considered good enough to buy one claim over a contrary claim.
I agree with much of what you say. But this assertion - 'no empirical claim is literally provable' - seems puzzling. And that may be because I don't understand it. But anyway, here are some thoughts about it - and they relate to GEM's argument about the objectivity of moral assertions.

If by 'provable' we mean 'testable', then, of course, any empirical claim is testable, if only in principle. But that means testable against some standard for what we count as truth. And if 'provable' means 'capable of being shown to be true', then the same applies: what does it mean to say an assertion is true?

Now, what I don't understand is why (in effect) you say 'no empirical assertion can be shown to be true' - so that, for example, 'the earth orbits the sun' and 'water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen' can't be shown to be true.

Is this because, as GEM thinks, we can't know what reality really is - because all each of us has is fallible sense data, from which all we can hope to produce are approximations to what we call 'the truth'? In other words, is the problem epistemological? Or, to put it another way, is it the problem of induction that makes it impossible to demonstrate the truth of an empirical claim?

What I'm trying to get at is this. The abstract noun 'truth' isn't the name of a thing of some kind that can be described. So there's no independent standard of truth against which empirical claims can be measured - and necessarily found wanting. What we mean when we say an assertion is true is what constitutes what we call truth - given the way we use the signs involved. There's no other court of appeal. And there's no such thing as a truth-claim outside a descriptive, conventional context.

We can be wrong, of course - so an empirical claim that we think is true can be false - 'the sun orbits the earth' is an example. But 'the sun orbits the earth' can be shown to be false - and eventually was - so why can't 'the earth orbits the sun' be shown to be true?

Sorry if these are stupid questions. And no worries if answering them is too tedious to bother with.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 11:19 am
by GE Morton
Terrapin Station wrote: April 5th, 2020, 7:32 am
So first, again, any claim can be stated "positively" or "negatively." So we can't go by that, really. You can personally attempt to require whatever you like when it comes to a claim like that. Other people are free to not care about your attempt. There are burden of proof conventions, but it's not wrong to be unconventional. Not right to be conventional.
Whether a claim is positive or negative per se is not the issue. It becomes an issue when the negative is a denial. Those two propositions will have different truth conditions. To continue with the previous example, "There are aliens among us posing as human" is true if there is at least one alien among us. The denial would be, "There are no aliens among us." Someone who makes the first claim can prove it by producing one alien. Someone who denies it, on the other hand, must examine all apparent humans and demonstrate they are not aliens --- a far more difficult task. If the positive is a universal, "There are aliens somewhere in this universe," the claimant can prove it the same way --- by producing one alien. The denier would have to search the entire universe to prove his claim --- an impossible demand.

Yes, you can ignore conventions if you wish. You can coin idiosyncratic meanings for common words if you wish, if you're unconcerned about being understood. You can ignore the burden of proof "convention" too, if you're content with making claims whose truth cannot be established and hence convey no information and will be brushed aside.
First off, no empirical claim is literally provable, and mathematical and logical claims are only provable relative to a particular system that we've constructed.
Are you quibbling over the use of the word "proof"? Suggesting that only logical proofs count?

Of course empirical claims are provable: "If I touch a lighted match to this pile of dry tinder, it will catch fire." I touch the lighted match to the tinder and it catches fire. I've just proved the claim I made. "There are 223 beans in this jar." You count the beans, getting 223. You've just proved that claim. "Proof," as commonly understood, is evidence sufficient to establish the truth of a claim "beyond reasonable doubt."
So given the fact that empirical claims are not provable period . . .
Nonsense.
. . . we can see that universal "negative" claims are not a problem for epistemology even when they're open-ended. It simply a matter of whether they are better reasons to believe the universal negative claim than otherwise.
Well, I guess that depends on what you count as a good reason. Most philosophers, I think, would hold there is no good reason to believe, or even take seriously, a proposition whose truth value is indeterminable in principle. Religionists and other mystics would disagree, of course --- they rely on an alternative to evidence --- "faith."
Also, previously you said, "If you're claiming that there's no evidence that it occurs elsewhere, then you're saying all evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind."

I assume you now agree your conclusion --- "it occurs only in the mind" --- does not follow from, "There is no evidence it occurs elsewhere."
The conclusion is "All evidence shows that it only occurs in the mind."
Not sure what you're saying there. Are you still claiming that "It occurs only in the mind" follows from, "There is no evidence it occurs elsewhere"?

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 11:46 am
by GE Morton
Peter Holmes wrote: April 5th, 2020, 10:15 am
Is this because, as GEM thinks, we can't know what reality really is - because all each of us has is fallible sense data, from which all we can hope to produce are approximations to what we call 'the truth'? In other words, is the problem epistemological? Or, to put it another way, is it the problem of induction that makes it impossible to demonstrate the truth of an empirical claim?
Egads. No, none of that is what "GEM thinks." It is not even close, and that you think it does indicates that my arguments have not been understood, probably because they have not really been considered.

My argument has nothing to do with the fallibility of sense data. While sense data can at times be spurious or misleading, for the most part it is quite reliable. And I certainly haven't claimed that " . . . all we can hope to produce are approximations to what we call 'the truth.'" We can't claim that proposition P is "an approximation of the truth" unless we know what IS the truth. And the only evidence we have, or can possibly have, for what is true is the evidence our senses present to us. There is no transcendental "standard" or criterion of truth --- no "real reality" --- to which we can compare our conceptions of reality or truth. Your phrase, "What reality really is . . . " presumes that there is such a standard or criterion, and that presumption is unjustified and untenable.
What I'm trying to get at is this. The abstract noun 'truth' isn't the name of a thing of some kind that can be described. So there's no independent standard of truth against which empirical claims can be measured - and necessarily found wanting. What we mean when we say an assertion is true is what constitutes what we call truth - given the way we use the signs involved. There's no other court of appeal. And there's no such thing as a truth-claim outside a descriptive, conventional context.
Well, there is a thing called "truth," and it can be described. You just described it, and I agree with your description.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 3:06 pm
by GE Morton
Peter, point of clarification:

I said above, "There is no transcendental "standard" or criterion of truth --- no "real reality" --- to which we can compare our conceptions of reality or truth."

Read that carefully. It is not saying that there is no external reality independent of our perceptions. I can't deny that any more than you can confirm it. It is saying there is no such "reality" to which we can compare our conceptions.. I.e., one that is accessible to us. Our perceptions are all we have. We can postulate an external reality, structure it such a way and endow it with whatever properties will help us explain those perceptions, but we can never be sure it "accurately" portrays whatever is "out there."

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 3:09 pm
by CIN
Terrapin Station wrote: April 1st, 2020, 6:42 pm "Pleasant" is conventionally parsed as standing for something that one places a positive value on. "Unpleasant" something that one places a negative value on. "Pain" is sometimes parsed similarly.

Of course, we could simply decree that we'll use language different than convention has it, but we should be explicit about this, and it would require that we avoid the conventional connotations of the terms elsewhere in the argument if we do that.

So if we're going to use "pleasant" and "unpleasant" different than the norm, what definitions are we going to be using?

Otherwise, if we're going to use the conventional definitions of those terms, we'd need to change (b), because it would be incoherent per conventional language usage.
When I consult a dictionary for the meaning of the word 'pleasant', I get e.g. "giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment".

I think it is you, not me, that is using these words differently than the norm.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 3:29 pm
by CIN
GE Morton wrote: April 1st, 2020, 9:58 pm
CIN, you need to familiarize yourself with the "naturalistic fallacy":

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Naturalistic_fallacy
Thanks, but I learned about that decades ago. Moore was wrong, as I have effectively argued. Don't think you can win an argument by giving a reference to someone else's work. If you disagree with me, then say why.
As I said, there is no means of determining the "intrinsic value" of anything. That renders all assertions of "intrinsic value" non-cognitive. The only means we have for determining the value of anything is observing what some person, a valuer, will give up to to obtain it.
No. The fact that pleasure is pursued and pain avoided shows that they have positive and negative values to the pursuers and the avoiders. They do not have to be "determined", by which I assume you mean the same as "measured".
Masochists value pain, ascetics disvalue pleasure.
These are extrinsic valuations, and extrinsic valuations which differ from intrinsic values can be mistaken. The masochist and the ascetic are simply getting it wrong.

My position is based on empirical observation and argument. You have provided neither evidence nor argument to support yours. And stop giving me reading lists. I am not your student, and my tutor was a far better philosopher than you will ever be.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 3:39 pm
by Terrapin Station
Peter Holmes wrote: April 5th, 2020, 10:15 am
I agree with much of what you say. But this assertion - 'no empirical claim is literally provable' - seems puzzling. And that may be because I don't understand it. But anyway, here are some thoughts about it - and they relate to GEM's argument about the objectivity of moral assertions.

If by 'provable' we mean 'testable', then, of course, any empirical claim is testable, if only in principle. But that means testable against some standard for what we count as truth. And if 'provable' means 'capable of being shown to be true', then the same applies: what does it mean to say an assertion is true?
No, it doesn't refer to "testable."

If we've proved that P, then it can't be the case that not-P. But it's a core tenet of empirical claims, especially as scientific claims, that any claim is falsifiable. What it means for a claim to be falsifiable is that it wouldn't be impossible to change any claim that P to not-P instead--it simply requires evidence for not-P. In other words, all scientific claims are open to revision. But this can't be the case if we've proved that P. That's the whole gist of science as opposed to something like religion, where for the latter there are unfalsifiable claims that must be accepted dogmatically.

Re: What could make morality objective?

Posted: April 5th, 2020, 3:53 pm
by Terrapin Station
CIN wrote: April 5th, 2020, 3:09 pm
Terrapin Station wrote: April 1st, 2020, 6:42 pm "Pleasant" is conventionally parsed as standing for something that one places a positive value on. "Unpleasant" something that one places a negative value on. "Pain" is sometimes parsed similarly.

Of course, we could simply decree that we'll use language different than convention has it, but we should be explicit about this, and it would require that we avoid the conventional connotations of the terms elsewhere in the argument if we do that.

So if we're going to use "pleasant" and "unpleasant" different than the norm, what definitions are we going to be using?

Otherwise, if we're going to use the conventional definitions of those terms, we'd need to change (b), because it would be incoherent per conventional language usage.
When I consult a dictionary for the meaning of the word 'pleasant', I get e.g. "giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment".

I think it is you, not me, that is using these words differently than the norm.
"Conventionally parsed as" isn't another way of saying, "Here I'm about to relay a dictionary definition verbatim." Happiness, satisfaction, enjoyment are conventionally parsed as being positive values, right?