Re: What could make morality objective?
Posted: March 30th, 2020, 2:06 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑March 30th, 2020, 7:13 amOf course. All philosophical argumentation --- all discussion of any kind --- consists in the consideration and evaluation of propositions.
So. let's be precise. A principle is not a proposition, so it can't be objective or subjective. We 're discussing the status or function of moral assertions.
Sure. Principles are a kind of rule also, but more general. A moral principle might be, "One ought not cause human suffering." That principle is true because it is obviously inconsistent with the goal of maximizing the welfare of all moral agents. A moral rule is more specific: "One ought not enslave other humans." It is true because slavery entails suffering. Both the principle and the rule would be false if suffering advanced the welfare of all moral agents.Yes, the adoption of any of those is a choice. But that a principle is adopted (followed, accepted, etc.) has no bearing on whether it is objective. It is objective if its truth conditions are public. Whether a principle or rule does or does not further a moral goal is (usually) empirically determinable, and hence is objective.Hold on. This is muddled, again. To clarify, please can you state a moral principle using an assertion that you think has a truth-value - one that, say, you think is true, but which would be false if things were different? And please can you also state a moral rule with the same property? I obviously don't understand what such things are, so clear examples would be useful.
So the definition of a moral agent, and therefore the applicability of moral principles, are stipulative, have no truth-value, and are not objective. Good to get that sorted.Correct. Definitions are conventions, not propositions.