Lagayscienza wroteCarried away, perhaps, in all that follows.
If you are right that science does not rest on a sound metaphysical foundation, then I need to ask why science works so well? Or why it works at all? I’m wondering what science would be like if all scientists became phenomenologists and so gained, through phenomenological method, a correct understanding of metaphysics. If that were to happen, how would science be different?
Consider what science is with this originally addressed to Sy Borg: Typical: I know what the sun is, and it is not a god, but ths is a negative claim, for which I am grateful to telescopes for. But when I start talking about fusion and the release of atomic energy, is this really "knowledge" of the sun? Or is this rather just a massive quantification project? There is a reason physics quickly turns into math and other quantitative disciplines. But does this mean the sun (and "the world" which is dealt with in the same way) is a mathematical structure, or that mathematics is an imposition in the apperceptive engagement of dealing with what we call the sun? One always will, and there is no turning back on this, find Kant staring back at you when things turn to basic questions, for to observe is an event, and we are not mirrors of nature. The brain is not a mirror; it MAKES the world, but thsi doesn't at all mean we must therefore face idealism or solipsism, for nothing coud be more clear than the sun is "over there" and it is certainly not me but independent of me in a way that needs to be defined and understood. Hence, phenomenology.
Pragmatists hold that knowledge is all about problem solving, and I think they are mostly right about this. The hypothetical deductive method goes something like this: I encounter a X on the street that looks like a shoe, and before this, I already have to have a knowledge of shoes in place, so the encountering is not simply a spontaneous affair but an anticipated one. The X before me is now, in order to be a shoe-type of encounter, an encounter in time: X is a shoe only if X complies with all of the anticipatory possibilities I associate with shoes, in terms of appearance, use, connotative or idiomatic associations (Bob is a shoe-in to get the job), and so on. The shoe is the standardized meanings, both personally and publically, that are "always already there" that make the shoe what it is when I see one (a piece of Heidegger in this). Science is grounded in this, as is all knowledge, the familiarity and the language/culture that attends the possibility of encounter.
Already the integrity of the science/knowledge claim is called into question, for without this knowledge claim "already there" I couldn't really have an encounter at all. Even if I had a "what the he** is this?" encounter with some object X, it would still be an anticipated encounter, the unexpectedness of X playing against the existing anticipations, forming a question rather than a affirmation. QUestions are open while affirmations are closed, but both are in a contextuality of general understanding. This is a pretty big point for Heidegger. But anyway, anticipation is an inherent part of what it is to even be a knowledge claim at all. The shoe does not appear before me in the occurrent encounter of actuality, because the anticipation, the temporal dimension, is an essential apart of what it is to even have an encounter at all. Hence, ones asks, how much of the meaning of the shoe experience has to do with what is there, in the "living actuality" of this, and how much is just this powerful and omnipresent anticipation of things designated "shoe"? ANd then the inevitable: how is it at all even possible for a knowledge claim to be about this actuality? For this temporal structure is what knowledge IS. Like asking, is it possible to observe a thing, a feeling, a desire, a pain or delight, anything at all, as it "really" is? Without this predelineation always in place, the object is forever transcendental.
Science is mostly quantitative knowledge that pragmatically (as you say, "works very well") talks about what the world does, and what the world does is this anticipatory structure that is found with the perceiver, not in the object perceived. I am doing the anticipating, not the world (and btw, Heidegger does not think like this). The world, on the other hand, is qualitative, like the pain of the girl, qualitative, and science is silent on this because it cannot, will not ever be able to say what this pain IS; qualitative "ISness" issues from "the fabric of things". The pain, like all objects-as-qualitative-presences, is transcendental, and this is a major point, for her pain, if you will, belongs to eternity, as they say. This sounds like religious talk.
Phenomenologists say things like: We are not searching for an answer to the question: How do we know there is cup on the table? We seek an answer to the question: How does it come about that consciousness can make contact with the cup on the able? How does what’s that out there (the cup) get in here (pointing to head)?I would refer you to the discussion above regarding what science knows. I would say say all three questions are essentially the same question. Troublw with reading Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy, and the like is you find the issues being explained in different ways, and words become ambiguous. Heidegger, e.g., has a very distinct idea in mind when talking about existence, being, existential and existentiell, ontology, and to explain him, terms can get weird and conflicted.
I’m wondering why someone could not reasonably inquire whether those three questions are, in fact, the same question? And also, what would the phenomenologist say if told that, even though science is based, as phenomenologists would have it, on a poor metaphysical foundation, we actually do already know quite a lot about how consciousness makes contact with the cup?
But to take how science know this relation, pretty straight forward: parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are reflected off, parts absorbed in, the object, and the former encounter the eye, and pas through the lens to the optic nerve and the cones and rods determine quality and intensity, and on the brain where the, what, the occipital lobe is it? creates an image, a phenomenon. Of course, you can do this with any sense, trace the causal lineage. But the question remains untouched" how does the image in the brain make a phenomenon that represents or has any relation at all to that out there? It is a very simple question, and you are invited to bang your head against it as I have done and continue to do. To no avail, I'm afraid. To do this, you assume a vantage point as you would do in a simple object to object description. But here, one can never leave the phenomenon. This is one reason Wittgenstein called the world mystical (Tractatus). LIke logic trying to say what logic is; it runs into itself doing the determining. No way out of this, really.
If the phenomenologist thinks that a phenomenological reduction will give a better, more reliable, more useful understanding of the cup in-itself, then could the phenomenologist not do the reduction and tell the rest of us what their better account of cup-ness is. If there is something that the rest of us, through our sensorium and technological extensions thereof, are missing about cup-ness, something that the phenomenologist has access to that we don’t, then that would be extremely interesting. If the phenomenologist cannot relate this special knowledge to others, then what will the phenomenologist do with this superior understanding of cup-ness?I was tempted to say it's not the case thatphenomenoogists claim to have to have a better account, but it is clear that they certainly do make that claim, which is simply true of anyone who makes a claim at all: I believe the way I do with justification, and that is why I believe it. Believing is based in justification. Here is a justified belief: philosophers who think empirical science should be the evidential ground for addressing philosophical questions about epistemology and ontology and ethics when these questions turn to affirmation about the world, fail before they have even begun, simply because empirical science (notwithstanding what quantum physics might suggest and all of the non-empirical abstract thinking science does) takes causality to be the essence of what it is to know, and in fact there is nothing at all epistemic about causality. The evidence of this lies, of course, in the very nature of causality, which is devoid of epistemic properties. So the next time a philosopher talks about evolution or a brain's t-fibers firing to explain something, like an emotion or suffering, they are begging this very question about epistemology. As I have said earlier, it is not that there is some room for moving from causality into other kinds of relational definitions, for the principle is really very simple: if X moves, X is caused to do so. Just that. You could send a baseball flying into a thousand different causal matrixes and eventually end up "causing" me to think of an apple, but this apple-thought is not even remotely a baseball, so, the question goes, how does my cat ever get in my brain such that I know it? Literally impossible unless we reconceive relation, but there is nothing in science that can do this.
This is, again, NOT to say we do not have knowledge of the world. It IS to say, that the epistemic connectivity has to be found elsewhere.
When you say "the rest of us" I would say you refer to everyone who does not take the phenomenological pov, but this view is actually one absurdly simple. It says that we allow our observations to be as honest and inclusive as the world permits. Science cannot make this claim, for it ignores epistemology and its ontology cannot register the imposing givenness of value affairs, as with the afflicted girl (per the above).
The consensus lies with science because we are raised to think like this. Familiarity. But the argument doesn't not favor science in philosophy.
If the phenomenologist says that If the phenomenologist says that it is not possible to relate this special knowledge to others and that each person must do their own phenomenological reduction to get their own answer, then won’t each meditator, even if the meditation (the reduction) is done perfectly as per Husserl’s instructions, have a different subjective experience of the cup, of its cup-ness? Our brains are, after all, all different. If we had all successfully done the reduction, what do we all then do with our different individual, better metaphysically grounded understandings of cup-ness? What useful knowledge will have been gained? then won’t each meditator, even if the meditation (the reduction) is done perfectly as per Husserl’s instructions, have a different subjective experience of the cup, of its cup-ness? Our brains are, after all, all different. If we had all successfully done the reduction, what do we all then do with our different individual, better metaphysically grounded understandings of cup-ness? What useful knowledge will have been gained?The phenomenalist doesn't say " that it is not possible to relate this special knowledge to others and that each person must do their own phenomenological reduction to get their own answer." Like all arguments, it assumes we share a world. And we can talk about it, but each conversation is thematically determined, and phenomenology has its own themes. Kant asked, how are synthetic apriori judgments possible? and wrote hundreds of pages on this. Husserl asked, what if we take the Cartesian method of doubt and follow through, on the assumption that consciousness is always consciousness OF something. questions like this do not lie outside possible agreement between us, for the structure of thought and phenomena are equally accessible. My world is your world to the extent we can agree, though it is true I can never enter your world. Reading Derrida makes the problem worse: utterances themselves cannot agree in any foundational way, for they are contextually variable, meaning the same word can be used in one context with success, and in another divergent context with success as well. Words are indeterminate, and it is not just my world against your world, but the foundational deficit of any utterance at all. This is something that goes beyond physical separation, for to speak those very terms, 'physical' and 'separation' depends on a systme of language agreement about the world. A sticky wicket I have not entirely come to understand. But Derrida does get very interesting, especially goes off the deep end with someone like Levinas, which I dare not even mention. The first time I read Levinas, I remember saying to myself, nobody could think like this.
Just ot keep in mind, I use the physical brain and its physical environment to make a point about how this kind of "physicalist" talk does not work. My true view does not think at all like this. Phenomenology does not recognize this pov aside from rejecting it in favor of a foundational phenomenology: what IS, is what appears to us: So much appearing, so much being; to the things themselves!; so much reduction, so much givenness. This latter is the icing on the cake, for the claim is that the reduction which suspends knowledge claims ultimately leads to revelation of the world as-it-is, an idea traditionally reserved for metaphysics. I.e., all ontologies in abeyance, for being itself is not being at all. Words themselves are in abeyance.
This last idea is one reason why analytic philosophy tends to be condescending and contemptuous toward post Husserlian phenomenology---see Blanchot or Levinas where things get truly weird. The latter, Levinas, most find unreadable, as in his Totality and Infinity. It DOES take an effort to engage this kind of thing at all. These guys have dropped all ways that science could explain the human condition, and work strictly within a phenomenological world, and metaphysics is not some empty concept, but is this powerful dynamic that confronts us when we reach out for higher meaning....but of course the term 'metaphysics' is mostly dropped as well. Heidegger's dasein is now the "what we ARE". It is a bit like a soul or spirit, really, defining what a person is by all that is there in what we think, feel, do and believe. One really has to let go of the metaphysics of science, which we all implicitly believe because we are enculturated this way.
Reading Heidegger's Being and TIme is entering into another world. But the post Husserlians take things to the telos of the reduction, which is a world beyond Heidegger, who thought Husserl tried to walk on water.
If everyone in the world did the phenomenological reduction, will the world finally understand cup-ness better than before? And how would this phenomenological approach lead to a better understanding of existence overall if we each applied the correct reduction to all phenomena? Religion for example. What would we all learn about the phenomenon of religion that we don't already know of cannot otherwise know?Yes, they would understand cupness better than before. But unfortunately, to actually DO the reduction, one has to pay the price. It's a lot of work. I believe I mentioned that one has to be already into this with a predisposition to get out of mundane interpretations of the world and into esoteric ones. The reduction liberates the cup from "pass me the cup" and all the other contexts in mundane affairs that settle the world without question. The goal is not Heideggerian, but post Husserlian: to see that the cup is only a cup, and the sun is only the sun, because of the familiarity of taking it AS a cup or the sun (that is Heidegger). Reified familiarity is all that the ordinary perceptual experiences are grounded in. The reduction removes familiarity and reveals the Being that familiarity presupposed.
Sorry again for the large number of questions. You have sparked my curiosity and I need to ask these questions if I am to understand phenomenology. I’ve been searching online for explanations and critiques of phenomenology so I can figure out what is bothering me about it, but there is very little out there. All I an find are papers on different interpretations of Husserl, Heidegger, et al but nothing foundational for the uninitiated. So, these questions are my own, the ones that are bothering me in my philosophical isolation, about phenomenology insofar as I have been able to understand it.
Perhaps Eugene Fink's Sixth Meditation's opening lines would be interesting to you:
Originating in the radicality of utmost self-reflection, our meditative thinking,
in performing the phenomenological reduction, brought us into the dimension
in which we stand before the problem-field of philosophy. Instead of
inquirin g into the being of the world, as does traditional "philosophy"
dominated by the dogmatism of the natural attitude, or, where inquiry is not
satisfied with that, instead of soaring up over the world "speculatively," we, in a
truly "Copernican revolution," have broken through the confinement of the natural
attitude, as the horizon of all our human possibilities for acting and theorizing,
and have thrust forward into the dimension of origin for all being, into the constitutive
source of the world, into the sphere of transcendental subjectivity. W e
have, however, not yet exhibited the constitutive becoming of the world in the
sense performances of transcendental life, both those that are presently actual and
those that are sedimented,- we have not yet entered into constitutive disciplines and
theories. W hat we have first done, rather, is to sketch out the Idea
of constitutive clarification as the Idea of the analytical inquiry that moves
back from the "phenomenon of the world" (from the acceptedness-construct
[Geltungsgebilde]b in reductively disclosed transcendental life) into the construction
of the acceptedness, into the processes of world-actualization.
The Copernican Revolution is a reference to Kant's transcendental idealism, but thi is not about Kant or Descartes, but going beyond the "acceptedness-construct" which is perhaps THE most underscored part of phenomenological thought: the everyday accepting of a world and our being here without a moment's thought that this can be questioned at all, this "throwness" into a world. Fink's Meditation is a fascinating read. The trouble lies in understanding him because he works within an established mode of thinking. Fink sounds almost mystical. It is a Cartesian approach, this reduction, an attempt to first declare what is indubitable, and the attempt to do this takes inquiry down to the very wire of phenomenological presence, to where thought itself emerges, but still, entirely devoted to description in the most honest way. We no longer take causal explanations as the final word. One may think of the brain as a causal source of a thought, and this it is right to think like this, but when philosophical questions are in play, causality/brain connectivity is question begging, after all, the brain itself IS a phenomenon, meaning in order to conceive of a brain, one has to use a brain, and there is no pov apart from the relation that is NOT phenomenological. The "mirror" theory of a brain delivering the world in which we find brains is absurd. Only conclusion: thought is delivered to us by a brain, but the brain is delivered to us by thought/phenomena (eidetically structured actualities, says Husserl); and we are faced with transcendence of the origin of the thought. This is why phenomenology can sound so impossibly weird. It is because the WORLD is weird, parsecs more weird than people even imagine.
Then religion: Most thinking people are moral relativists, because they can see values throughout history and cultures varying, and analysis into these settings reveals reasons why people believe the way they do, and it has nothing to do with supreme beings descending, deus ex machina, making demands and judgments. So I am a relativist, too, in this vein, and the moral objectivist in my thinking hasn't made a showing yet. What makes, then, feeding Christians to hungry lions wrong? It was considered rather routine at some point in the Roman empire and people watched, presumably for entertainment. What makes it wrong something that exceeds mere attitudes and beliefs and, as anaytic philosophers often think, mere "egocentric commendation" of something? See the way Mackie handles this in his discussion of the "good" in chapter two and note how the term finds no rest. This is because he is absolutely committed to avoiding the simplicity of what is directly there in the, say, being torn apart by lions. All this talk about good sunsets and carving knives and wants and interests and pov's simply assumes that sorting out such complexities is the only approach that can be taken: the contexts in wich we use the term where ambiguities lie and analysis can yield insights that can lead to better arguable position.
But he is not even trying to deal with the world, just the term. It is patently absurd in moral philosophy that wants to understand actuality, like explaining to a plague victim, bleeding sores gangrenous black fingers and toes, that this can all be explained in terms of evolution favoring phenotypic suffering of genotypic random mutations due to its superiority in being conducive to survival and reproduction...which is true, of course, but so incongruous with reality one has to wonder about the purpose beyond the mere curiosity terms' meanings present. But of one does take the world seriously, then ethics and the "good" find their foundational analysis in the world itself, and so, let the world "speak"! Is that event of a knife your kidney really an "egocentric commendation" (with the analytical qualifications Mackie provides assumed. One has to read the chapter) of a knife-free kidney?
Putting analytic infatuation with words aside, and to the world. Pain and pleasure, suffering and happiness, and this entire dimension of our existence is given, not constructed. A question for the scientist: you mean to say that being erupted into existence, so to speak, according to the Big Bang theory (not altogether unchallenged, they say; but nevertheless), and 13 billion years or so later, it just started torturing itself through the agency of human beings (and turtles, dogs and cats, etc.)? There is something comically counterintuitive about this, for being, it would seem, "did" just that, and we are stuck wondering what being IS that would "do" this. Theological justifications and obfuscations off the table. This is a question for a scientific oriented inquiry, so we look at the world, not dogma. You can pretend this question didn't exist, but it is important to see that ethics and the foundation of its normativity rests with what being DOES. It is "doing" this as I speak or write: thought that is mine issues from being, and Derrida calls this the impossible, and the moral commandment not to harm others comes also from being itself, and the suffering of the girl we are talking about has its ethical meaning, but " not that it belongs in the domain of the ethical, but in that it ultimately authorizes every ethical law in general." (Violence and Metaphysics)
What is the engine that runs ethics? It is value. Worth repeating: no value, no ethics. It is in the caring that we even have ethical issues at all. Caring is subjective, so what is the objective counterpart to this: some value in the world, like a hunger or a bliss, in-the-flesh, so to speak. Being "does" this, so our ethics is grounded in the question of being, and being grounded in metaphysics and metaphysics is what this world (physics) is all about; therefore our ethics is just as significant as any biblical narrative could possible make it, in the fabric of things. If there is moral outrage in our midst, it has the gravitas of a divine command.