Steve3007 wrote: ↑November 22nd, 2021, 1:46 pm
This question of how to define a subsidy is quite interesting. I looked at the WTO definition and one of its definitions of a subsidy (ii) is:
"government revenue that is otherwise due is foregone or not collected".
That seems to me very different from the IEA definition which uses the concept of a "reference price" in its definition. As far as I can gather, the "reference price" is the calculated "full cost of supply", which seems to be the price that the end-use would pay for the fuel based on international prices.
Thanks for that link. Here is WTO's full defintion:
"1.1 For the purpose of this Agreement, a subsidy shall be deemed to exist if:
(a)(1) there is a financial contribution by a government or any public body within the territory of a Member (referred to in this Agreement as 'government'), i.e. where:
(i) a government practice involves a direct transfer of funds (e.g. grants, loans, and equity infusion), potential direct transfers of funds or liabilities (e.g. loan guarantees);
(ii) government revenue that is otherwise due is foregone or not collected (e.g. fiscal incentives such as tax credits);
(iii) a government provides goods or services other than general infrastructure, or purchases goods;
(iv) a government makes payments to a funding mechanism, or entrusts or directs a private body to carry out one or more of the type of functions illustrated in (i) to (iii) above which would normally be vested in the government and the practice, in no real sense, differs from practices normally followed by governments;
or
(a)(2) there is any form of income or price support in the sense of Article XVI of GATT 1994; and
(b) a benefit is thereby conferred."
By comparison, here is the dictionary definition:
"1. Monetary assistance granted by a government to a person or group in support of an enterprise regarded as being in the public interest."
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=subsidy
That definition --- which is the one commonly understood when used in most contexts --- is essentially the same as the WTO's (i) above. Fossil fuel companies, at least in the US, receive virtually no subsidies in that sense. Nor do they receive any subsidies as defined in (iii) or (iv) above.
What about (ii)? Well, if the tax code allows deductions of certain costs from taxable income, and if those allowable deductions are those generally allowed for all businesses, then they don't receive any subsidies in that sense either. The revenue thus "forgone" by government is not "otherwise due."
To see what real subsidies are, mass transit systems (in the US) are classic examples. Nearly every US city with a population of 25,000 or more has some sort of mass transit system. In all but one or two cities, 70-90% of the cost of operating the system is paid by taxpayers, not the users of the system.
transitsubsidies.jpg (63.95 KiB) Viewed 1383 times
In smaller markets the subsidies range from 80 to 90%. Those are real subsidies.
On the face of it, based on the minimal research I've done, it seem that these would result in very different assessments of how much petrol/gasoline is deemed to be subsidized in a country like the UK where fuel is heavily taxed, and has been for many years. Here in the UK, we have a "fuel duty" which is a flat rate of about £0.58 per litre. On top of this there's VAT (sales tax), which is 20% of the total of the product price and the fuel duty.
In the US automobile fuels are taxes by both the federal government and the states. In both cases, the taxes were originally earmarked for highway trust funds, to be used for maintaining public highways. In recent decades, however, a substantial fraction of that tax (~20%), levied against auto users, has been diverted to subsidize urban transit systems.