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By Belindi
#393959
Steve3007 wrote: September 7th, 2021, 7:04 am
Belindi wrote:Alfie has two legs doesn't imply Alfie has the right to his two legs.or Alfie has the right to have two legs like most other people

I eat does not imply I have the right to eat
A distinction between those two examples of possible rights would be that continued possession of the things I brought into the world (e.g. parts of my body) can happen with no injury or loss to others. Whereas if we were to simply say:

"I have the right to eat."

as opposed to saying something like:

"I have the right to grow or gather food so I can eat it or negotiate a freely entered agreement with somebody else to grow/gather it for me. (Possibly involving me doing something in return. Possibly using money as a means of exchange.)"

then we'd be implying that someone else has the obligation to do work in order to provide me with that food. So "I have the right to eat" implies forced loss to others. I think that's why a true libertarian would say that we have a natural right to the things we brought into the world but we don't simply have a natural right to eat. Just as (they would say) we have the right to "the pursuit of happiness" but we don't simply have the right to be happy. We have the right to pursue our desires. We don't have the right to have someone else be forced to work to deliver them. That's the line.

But yes, I agree that "Alfie has two legs" doesn't imply "Alfie has the right to his two legs", unless we prepend the assertion "We all have the right to what we were born with" as a premise. Obviously we might almost all of us agree that people should be afforded the right to the things they were born with. But that just makes it a very popular moral principle, not an empirical truth about the extra-mental world.
That is all okay by me Steve!
Obviously we might almost all of us agree that people should be afforded the right to the things they were born with.
Many extend this right to all sentient creatures, so that the creatures are given the right to experience the behaviours they were born with.
By GE Morton
#393966
Leontiskos wrote: September 7th, 2021, 12:05 am
Okay, I think I understand your position. A few points:
  • P1: If someone has a right to some thing then that thing was acquired without inflicting loss or injury on anyone else.
  • P2: If someone has acquired some thing without inflicting loss or injury on anyone else then they have a right to that thing.
  • P3: If someone has a right to some thing then others have property obligations towards the right-holder.
  • 4: Therefore, if someone has acquired some thing without inflicting loss or injury on anyone else, then others have property obligations towards the right-holder. {From P2 & P3}
Regarding the terminological question, P1 and P2 describe what you refer to as the truth conditions for verifying the existence of a right. Yet the meaning of rights seems to be elucidated by P3, which is to say that when we commonly speak about rights we are generally speaking about P3 rather than P1 (or P2). It seems like this has been a confusion in the thread, for talking about how rights are established or verified (P1 & P2) is different from talking about rights themselves (P3). Apparently the establishment and verification of rights is a factual matter while the concept and assertion of rights is a normative (or moral) matter. Further evidence of this lies in the fact that the no-ought-from-is crowd will complain about P2 rather than P3, for the "ought" comes onto the scene when the right comes onto the scene.

(Of course, when P3 is isolated from P1 we tend to run into the problem of pseudo-rights, but I still think the semantic meaning of rights is best illustrated by P3)

Secondly, 4 is clearly a violation of the so-called "is-ought principle." That's fine with me; I think 4 is sound. But lots of folks around here are going to be squeamish about such a "violation." Do you think it is a violation of that principle, and if so, is it justified?
The the is-ought lacuna is real; deriving moral propositions from factual ones is logically impossible. We can't derive your P3 or P4 from P2 alone; a moral premise (ideally one derived from a sound moral theory) must be added to the argument, e.g., "one ought not inflict losses or injuries on other moral agents" (the do-no-harm principle).
Thirdly, it is not clear to me how 4 jibes with your theory of morality as instrumental. If not everyone has adopted the goal that the instrumental moral precept is aiming at, then can the moral obligation apply to them?
It is instrumental because all of the obligations, "oughts" and "ought nots," generated by the theory are aimed at attaining the goal declared in its axiom, (which I call the "Fundamental Principle"). And you're right; none of those obligations apply to persons who don't accept the Fundamental Principle. But those who don't will need to tell us what they think morality is.
GE Morton wrote: September 6th, 2021, 9:06 pmBut those relationships only spring into existence after the right itself does. They are subsequent and consequent to the act which created the right, namely, an act of first possession.
It seems to me that the relationships are subsequent and consequent to the act of first possession which created the right, but not to the right itself. They are co-terminus with the right itself. (That said, I'm not sure if this distinction is important)
There is no "right itself" until it is created! There is only the concept of "rights." That concept imposes no obligations on anyone.
User avatar
By Leontiskos
#393968
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 7th, 2021, 4:53 am
Leontiskos wrote: September 6th, 2021, 2:13 pm But I don't see why you would be surprised that GE Morton thinks self-interest extends to the benefits of others. You yourself claimed that altruism is bound up with self-interest (link). As of May 6th you agreed with Morton. 🤔
There is a difference between recognising a link between altruism and self-interest, and extending the meaning of the term "self" to include others.
No one redefined "self." You made that up. Here is the quote in question:
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 6th, 2021, 11:25 am
GE Morton wrote: September 5th, 2021, 1:18 pm "Self-interest" is not limited to securing benefits for oneself; it extends to benefits to others if the welfare of those others is important to you.
This is a remarkable extension of the meaning of "self". If we go just one tiny step farther, it would say that "self" includes one's entire community. And thereby we convert selfishness into altruism, or into communism (community-ism). I don't think this particular extension of meaning is useful; I think it's misleading and confusing.
You took a quote about self-interest and blatantly misrepresented it by equivocating on self-interest, self, and selfishness, and you did so in a way that contradicts your own beliefs, for you yourself agree with Morton's claim that self-interest is not limited to securing benefits for oneself.
Favorite Philosopher: Aristotle and Aquinas
By GE Morton
#393971
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 7th, 2021, 4:53 am
There is a difference between recognising a link between altruism and self-interest, and extending the meaning of the term "self" to include others.
Er, the term in question is not "self;" it is "self-interest." The latter term means, "my interests," or "your interests." Those interests may include the welfare of others.
By GE Morton
#393974
Belindi wrote: September 6th, 2021, 3:11 pm
But the titles of Doctor and MD are given to individuals by established institutions. Rights tend to be enshrined in a society's laws. Such titles are given for specific skills and knowledge, not for "acquired them righteously, that is, without inflicting harms or losses on anyone else."
The issue at hand was how pseudo-properties come to be assigned; they are assigned when certain states-of-affairs obtain. Who assigns them is irrelevant. And, no, "acquired them righteously" is not the warrant for assigning the pseudo-property "M.D." That is the condition for assigning a right. Assigning the "M.D." property is warranted by a different state-of-affairs.

And only legal rights, which per se have no moral significance, are "enshrined in society's laws." Natural and common rights (the rights of interest here) precede any laws. Indeed, per most of the architects of classical liberalism, the primary raison d'etre for creating governments and laws is to protect those pre-existing rights. Jefferson's statement in the US Declaration of Independence is illustrative: "All men are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable rights . . . to secure these rights, governments are instituted among men . . ."
The designation of husband is not legally enforced in any case as far as I am aware.
Enforced? Applying that label --- that pseudo-property --- to a married man presumes or implies nothing about any enforcement. It is irrelevant.
Your description of what natural rights means may be popular, but it is not a description that stands opposed to man-made rights. It is obvious that societies arbitrate on what man shall be permitted to live and what man shall not be permitted to live e.g. wars, human sacrifices, the death penalty, leaving poor people to starve to death, lethal conditions issuing from trade in human beings.
Well, Belindi, you seem to be pointing out that people, and governments, regularly violate people's rights. I certainly agree.
#393975
Leontiskos wrote: September 7th, 2021, 10:46 am
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 7th, 2021, 4:53 am
Leontiskos wrote: September 6th, 2021, 2:13 pm But I don't see why you would be surprised that GE Morton thinks self-interest extends to the benefits of others. You yourself claimed that altruism is bound up with self-interest (link). As of May 6th you agreed with Morton. 🤔
There is a difference between recognising a link between altruism and self-interest, and extending the meaning of the term "self" to include others.
No one redefined "self." You made that up. Here is the quote in question:
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 6th, 2021, 11:25 am
GE Morton wrote: September 5th, 2021, 1:18 pm "Self-interest" is not limited to securing benefits for oneself; it extends to benefits to others if the welfare of those others is important to you.
This is a remarkable extension of the meaning of "self". If we go just one tiny step farther, it would say that "self" includes one's entire community. And thereby we convert selfishness into altruism, or into communism (community-ism). I don't think this particular extension of meaning is useful; I think it's misleading and confusing.
You took a quote about self-interest and blatantly misrepresented it by equivocating on self-interest, self, and selfishness, and you did so in a way that contradicts your own beliefs, for you yourself agree with Morton's claim that self-interest is not limited to securing benefits for oneself.

Dictionary.com wrote:Self-interest noun - regard for one's own interest or advantage, especially with disregard for others; personal interest or advantage.
It is the "self-" part of "self-interest" that refers specifically to, er, self. For this reason I commented on a claim that "self-interest" is not limited to, er, "self", but extends to others too. This is a radically different definition than is normally used, which justifies commenting on it.

Self-interest is limited to oneself: see the dictionary definition above. It can, coincidentally, benefit others as well, but this is not part of its meaning.

Whatever the personal agenda you're pursuing here, I will no longer respond to your silly, contrived comments. If you have a philosophical point to make here, please make it. Otherwise, please stop this silliness. Thanks.
Favorite Philosopher: Cratylus Location: England
By GE Morton
#393976
Belindi wrote: September 7th, 2021, 6:09 am Alfie has two legs doesn't imply Alfie has the right to his two legs.or Alfie has the right to have two legs like most other people

I eat does not imply I have the right to eat

There is no Authority that stipulates rights of any sort. Moreover some philosophers claim there is no Authority that stipulates normal human anatomy (or normal human psyche)
I agree, on all points above. Rights, however, are not bestowed by any "authority" and don't depend on one. They arise when certain historical states-of-affairs are the case.
User avatar
By Leontiskos
#393978
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 7th, 2021, 11:32 am
Dictionary.com wrote:Self-interest noun - regard for one's own interest or advantage, especially with disregard for others; personal interest or advantage.
Disregard for others does not appear in all definitions:
Merriam Webster wrote:Self-Interest:
1: a concern for one's own advantage and well-being
2: one's own interest or advantage
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 7th, 2021, 11:32 amSelf-interest is limited to oneself: see the dictionary definition above. It can, coincidentally, benefit others as well, but this is not part of its meaning.
You have to pick a definition and stick to it. You can't have one meaning for yourself and another for others. You can't claim "a link between altruism and self-interest" when it suits your aims and claim that it is "limited to oneself" when you want to criticize another. Someone literally asked how self-interest relates to morality, and you answered: "Altruism?"
Pattern-chaser wrote: September 7th, 2021, 11:32 amOtherwise, please stop this silliness. Thanks.
I would prefer that you stop your silliness. Self-interest can't mean different things when it suits your eristics. Thanks.
Favorite Philosopher: Aristotle and Aquinas
By Ecurb
#393982
Leontiskos wrote: September 6th, 2021, 7:33 pm

I don't know whether the First Amendment could be justified entirely on the basis of notions of possession. I haven't really looked at that question.

Do you think that the right to life exists and is rationally justifiable? If so, how would you justify it?
The right to life is culturally constituted. As is obvious from a mere glance at history, it has changed dramatically through the centuries. It involves nothing more or less than an obligation ("ought") on the part of other people not to kill you. I would justify it by saying, "I am happy to oblige myself not to kill other people, and I expect them to oblige themselves not to kill me." I do this because I think if everyone in society agrees to this principle, we will all live longer and happier lives.

Clearly, the right to life does not protect people from dying. It has no impact on cancer, avalanches, sharks or strokes. It does (and can do) only one thing: confer an obligation on the part of other people. Of course, as this right is commonly understood, it is not universal: self-defense, defense of property or country, and the punishment of capital crimes are traditional reasonas for shirking what would be our normal obligation not to kill.

Rather than Morton's (silly, in my opinion) notion that property rights (and the right to life) are the result of "first possession", I would suggest that they are also culturally constituted and conditional. If we think obliging people to limit their own freedom vis a vis other people's "property" will conduce human well-being, we confer a legal (and possibly moral) "right". Because these rights are conditional and culturally constituted, the notion that taxation is akin to robbery or slavery is ridiculous. If you own a house, you have the culturally constiuted "right" to prevent strangers from sleeping in it (you may be unable to do the same for your mother-in-law). However, your ownership is conditional. One of the conditions is that you cannot raise pigs in the back yard (if it's outlawed by zoning regulations). Another is that you have to pay property taxes. These are contractual conditions of "ownership" -- and any notion of "ownership" that ignores them is simply incorrect (in both my opinion and according to the laws of every country in which private property exists). The same is true of income: we don't even come into "first possession" of some of it, because the taxes are deducted from our paychecks. The culturally (and legally) constituted conditions of our income involve paying taxes, just as the culturally constituted conditions of our possession of the rest of it allows us to invest it in bitcoins.
User avatar
By Leontiskos
#393987
GE Morton wrote: September 7th, 2021, 10:45 am
Leontiskos wrote: September 7th, 2021, 12:05 am
Okay, I think I understand your position. A few points:
  • P1: If someone has a right to some thing then that thing was acquired without inflicting loss or injury on anyone else.
  • P2: If someone has acquired some thing without inflicting loss or injury on anyone else then they have a right to that thing.
  • P3: If someone has a right to some thing then others have property obligations towards the right-holder.
  • 4: Therefore, if someone has acquired some thing without inflicting loss or injury on anyone else, then others have property obligations towards the right-holder. {From P2 & P3}
Regarding the terminological question, P1 and P2 describe what you refer to as the truth conditions for verifying the existence of a right. Yet the meaning of rights seems to be elucidated by P3, which is to say that when we commonly speak about rights we are generally speaking about P3 rather than P1 (or P2). It seems like this has been a confusion in the thread, for talking about how rights are established or verified (P1 & P2) is different from talking about rights themselves (P3). Apparently the establishment and verification of rights is a factual matter while the concept and assertion of rights is a normative (or moral) matter. Further evidence of this lies in the fact that the no-ought-from-is crowd will complain about P2 rather than P3, for the "ought" comes onto the scene when the right comes onto the scene.

(Of course, when P3 is isolated from P1 we tend to run into the problem of pseudo-rights, but I still think the semantic meaning of rights is best illustrated by P3)

Secondly, 4 is clearly a violation of the so-called "is-ought principle." That's fine with me; I think 4 is sound. But lots of folks around here are going to be squeamish about such a "violation." Do you think it is a violation of that principle, and if so, is it justified?
The the is-ought lacuna is real; deriving moral propositions from factual ones is logically impossible. We can't derive your P3 or P4 from P2 alone; a moral premise (ideally one derived from a sound moral theory) must be added to the argument, e.g., "one ought not inflict losses or injuries on other moral agents" (the do-no-harm principle).
Okay. Let's hold off on the no-ought-from-is issue for the time being. The first thing to do is to look at the ongoing question of where the "ought" enters the argument. You seem to think that it enters at P3, whereas I and some others think it enters at P2. On my view P3 is a tautology. This question was the purpose of the primary section of my last post which began, "Regarding the terminological question..." The term in question is "right", and the question is about how obligations relate to rights, namely whether P1 or P3 better captures the meaning of rights.

GE Morton wrote: September 7th, 2021, 10:45 am
Leontiskos wrote: September 7th, 2021, 12:05 am
GE Morton wrote: September 6th, 2021, 9:06 pmBut those relationships only spring into existence after the right itself does. They are subsequent and consequent to the act which created the right, namely, an act of first possession.
It seems to me that the relationships are subsequent and consequent to the act of first possession which created the right, but not to the right itself. They are co-terminus with the right itself. (That said, I'm not sure if this distinction is important)
There is no "right itself" until it is created! There is only the concept of "rights." That concept imposes no obligations on anyone.
I agree with you that there is no real right until it is created, and that before its creation there is only the concept of rights which imposes no obligations. Let's look at a timeline:
  • t1: The concept of rights exists, but not real rights.
  • t2: An act of first possession begins.
  • t31: The act of first possession completes.
  • t32: A right exists.
  • tx: Property obligations towards the right-holder exist.
Now I grant that t31 and t32 are simultaneous events. The question is whether tx is temporally or logically removed from t32. I don't think it is. It seems like you think it is at least logically consequent to t32 in the sense that P3 would not be a tautology. That is, you think P2 is an easier premise to defend than P3, and that the "ought" comes onto the scene with P3. I think P3 is easier to defend, and I think that the "ought" comes onto the scene with P2. When we use the word "rights" we generally mean P3, not P1. I do not agree that rights can be separated from "oughts" or obligations (and it seems like others in this thread are also at odds with you on this terminological question). In Aristotelian terms I would say that t31 is the efficient cause of rights whereas tx is the formal cause (and assertion of rights is the final cause).

Have I at least captured your view?

GE Morton wrote: September 7th, 2021, 10:45 am
Leontiskos wrote: September 7th, 2021, 12:05 amThirdly, it is not clear to me how 4 jibes with your theory of morality as instrumental. If not everyone has adopted the goal that the instrumental moral precept is aiming at, then can the moral obligation apply to them?
It is instrumental because all of the obligations, "oughts" and "ought nots," generated by the theory are aimed at attaining the goal declared in its axiom, (which I call the "Fundamental Principle"). And you're right; none of those obligations apply to persons who don't accept the Fundamental Principle. But those who don't will need to tell us what they think morality is.
Okay, so you wouldn't see the obligation as binding on all? It binds only those who agree to the moral premise?
Favorite Philosopher: Aristotle and Aquinas
#393996
Leontiskos wrote: September 7th, 2021, 11:48 am ...
I am 66, with MS and COPD; my time is precious to me. I choose not to waste any more of it on you.

You may have as many 'last words' on this exchange as you like; I shan't see them.

<ignore-list name="leontiskos">
Favorite Philosopher: Cratylus Location: England
By GE Morton
#394024
Gertie wrote: September 5th, 2021, 4:41 am
This is what I have so far. You have a set of criteria for which sentient beings are/aren't due moral consideration -

* Those who understand right and wrong and can act on it (moral agents).

* Those who understand right and wrong but can't act on it [b](moral subjects)[/b]

Those who can act on it, but don't understand right and wrong. (not included for moral consideration in your foundational axiom)

Those who can't act on it, but do understand right and wrong. (not included for moral consideration in your foundational axiom).
Yikes. Where did you get those? They are not the criteria I gave. For example, a "moral agent" (again), was,

A Moral Agent is a sentient creature who
a) has interests and some capacity for pursuing them, and
b) is capable of recognizing other qualifying creatures as moral agents who likewise have interests, which may differ from his own, and
c) is capable of understanding and formulating moral principles and rules and acknowledges the need for them in a moral field.

Your 3rd one, "Those who can act on it, but don't understand right and wrong" is incoherent -- how can someone act on something he can't understand, other than by accident?

Also, you're 2nd and 4th seem to be identical. ??
Your axiom, from which moral rules and principles are to be derived, only covers the first two categories.
It only addresses moral agents (as I defined them), because only they, by definition, can understand those rules and principles. That doesn't imply that those agents have no moral obligations to (sentient) non-agents, however. I agree agents may have some obligations to sentient non-agents. Deriving those would require an additional postulate.

BTW, I prefer "sentient" to "conscious" creature, because the latter is ambiguous. "Conscious" has two senses in English, one distinguishing an awake animal from a sleeping one, and the other distinguishing a sentient creature, i.e., many animals, from non-sentient things like rocks and plants.
Of course there are sentient beings, including millions of people, who don't fit in any of these four categories, nevermind the first two, and so aren't granted any moral consideration in your axiom. Including a drowning toddler.
They may not all fit in any of your categories, but they all fit in one of mine.
Your definition of ''Equal Agency'' just means the rules you derive from your axiom apply equally to all moral agents, not that they actually have equal agency. Their actual capacity for agency is irrelevant, they just have to be defined as having it. This is plain and simple a recipe for the more privileged/powerful to take advantage of the less privileged/powerful, further widening the gap. An exploiters' charter.
It is not a recipe for anything. Either someone satisfies the criteria for agency or he doesn't. There is no "capacity for agency" beyond those criteria. Equal Agency does not mean or entail material equality, i.e., equality of strengths, talents, motivations, goods, or circumstances. Those factors are all widely variable among agents, but none of those variations have any bearing on agency.

You seem to want to build some obligation to reduce those inequalities into the axioms of moral theory. That is question-begging --- if such obligations exist, they have to be derived from axioms and postulates that are self-evident and morally neutral. Otherwise you're merely reaching pre-conceived conclusions via a circular argument.
And the foundational axiom itself, the generator of rules and principles which apply to the first two of the above categories, is that Moral Agents ought to allow each other and Moral Subjects to maximise their interests. There is no ought to help them do so, merely to allow it, and not impede it.
That's correct. As I said, if there is to be such an "ought" it has to be derived from the axioms and postulates, as do all other "oughts." That is what a moral theory (or any theory) is --- a set of axioms from which conclusions can be logically derived. It can't be assumed in the axiom; that would be question-begging.
Your moral Principle of Freedom clearly derives from your axiomatic foundation, it's almost a tortology. And to impede another moral agent or subject maximising their own wellbeing is the clearly derivable Moral Wrong.
Well, I've never asserted a "Principle of Freedom," but such a principle is certainly derivable from the axiom and postulates. And, yes, the "do no harm" principle is also derivable from them. So must be any principle commanding charity.
You also have a Duty to Aid, but that doesn't derive from your axiom. That's an ungrounded add-on.
No, it is not. As I said before, to the extent such a duty is honored it will reduce the risks of loss of welfare for all agents. Hence it is consistent with and entailed by the axiom. That will be the case with all moral duties, BTW --- they will only advance or preserve welfare to the extent they are honored.

Re: the Duty to Aid:
So lets apply this to a few homeless peeps you might pass on the street.

- An able bodied and able-minded adult who lost their job. (moral agent)

- A severely physically disabled person who can't support themselves. (moral subject)

- An abandoned baby left on a doorstep. (neither/not included for moral consideration).

Your axiom gives provides no moral obligation to help any of them based on their circumstances or needs, only to allow them to maximise their own welfare in the first two cases. The third case of the abandoned baby isn't covered by your categories for moral consideration.
The axiom asserts no moral obligations, other than, "Devise principles and rules which allow all agents to maximize their welfare." So if there is to be an obligation to help anyone, some rule to that effect, it has to be derived from that axiom, via some showing that it furthers the aim stated in the axiom and is consistent with the other postulates, such as the Equal Agency postulate.
Let's see if your so far ungrounded ''Duty to Aid'' add-on makes a difference.

Well the most vulnerable, the baby and severely physically disabled woman, can't offer much in return, but maybe it isn't their fault they're homeless, maybe the woman is disabled through no fault of her own, so they qualify for a bit of help if it isn't too onerous on you. At your discretion once you've run through your checklist.

But not by the state, only by someone who qualifies as a moral agent who might pass by. And once they've offered that bit of help, which obviously isn't going to be a long term solution, the baby and severely disabled woman are no better off. But pooling our bits of aid communally as a society (via taxes) to offer long term help to actually allow them to flourish, is immoral. It goes against the very foundation of your morality which is to be allowed to maximise your own welfare without interference.
That's largely correct, but don't forget that the benefit of the doubt as to whether the conditions on the duty are satisfied goes to the victim. The Duty to Aid must be discretionary, due to the subjectivity and idiosycrasy of values. And of course, there is nothing wrong with "pooling our bits" to aid others --- as long participation in that pool is voluntary. That is what charities are for and what they do. If it becomes mandatory under the threat of government guns then some agents will be imposing their subjective values on others by force, an egregious violation of the Equal Agency postulate and the axiom.

You seem to be inclined to grant to the State prerogatives and powers I doubt you would grant to any individual, an assumption, as I've mentioned before, reminiscent of the "divine right of Kings." But if the state is a creature of a citizenry, their agent, as Western liberalism assumes, then it can have no powers or prerogatives those citizens don't possess themselves, and the State itself must be bound by the same moral constraints that bind them individually. To consider your abandoned baby case --- I doubt you would argue that anyone may force someone who finds an abandoned baby to adopt it and raise it as their own. If no individual (morally speaking) has such a power, then how can the State have it? The Duty to Aid would only require that the person who finds it tend to its immediate needs, then deliver it to a charity devoted to caring for orphans and finding willing adoptive parents.

A couple of other assumptions I see as unwarranted and inaccurate seem to underlie your arguments. First, that we all have a priori moral obligations --- obligations we bring with us into the world, that are inherent and inescapable, and which must be acknowledged and serve as the starting point --- the axioms --- of any moral theory. Such obligations would be extra-theoretical, arising ex nihilo, and utterly without rational justification, i.e., arbitrary. Such an assumption renders philosophical moral theorizing moot.

You also mention "communally as a society" (the other unwarranted assumption). Modern civilized socities are not communes, not "big happy families," not collectives of any kind. Anyone who expects them to behave as though they is wandering in the weeds and is doomed to disappointment.
What kind of morality is this GE? What's it for except letting the more advantaged further flourish at the expense of those less so?
Well, that second sentence is inaccurate. The theory certainly does NOT let the more advantaged flourish "at the expense" of anyone. That is explicitly ruled out by the theory. If Alfie spends $10 he's earned for a meal, it is not "at the expense" of Bruno. It would only be at Bruno's expense if Alfie had taken the $10 from Bruno. That is a sophistry frequently encountered in leftist rhetoric --- equating refusing to give someone something with taking something from him.

As for what kind of morality this is: It is a rational morality derived from readily confirmable features of modern civilized societies and the relationships among their members, and from an axiom that tries to capture the aim of most moral systems proposed over the centuries. It is not a morality for a regious community, a commune, or a kinship-based tribe.

Gertie --- though we disagree on important issues, I enjoy your comments. They are cogent, on-point, and sometimes challenging.
By Belindi
#394045
GEMorton wrote:
If Alfie spends $10 he's earned for a meal, it is not "at the expense" of Bruno. It would only be at Bruno's expense if Alfie had taken the $10 from Bruno.
If
a) the whole pot contains no more than $10
and

b)the pot is available only to Bruno and Alfie

Then if either Alfie or Bruno take the whole pot one of them has deprived the other.

Economic growth is limited to what is sustainable, so there is a finite pot.

Capitalism lets either Alfie or Bruno have more than fair shares. Socialism recalibrates the balance.

(PS I trust you are not one of those who confuse socialism with communism!)
By GE Morton
#394077
Belindi wrote: September 8th, 2021, 5:28 am GEMorton wrote:
If Alfie spends $10 he's earned for a meal, it is not "at the expense" of Bruno. It would only be at Bruno's expense if Alfie had taken the $10 from Bruno.
If
a) the whole pot contains no more than $10
and

b)the pot is available only to Bruno and Alfie

Then if either Alfie or Bruno take the whole pot one of them has deprived the other.
Sorry, Belinda, but there is no "pot" with $10 in it. That $10 doesn't exist until someone creates it, by producing a good or service worth $10 to someone. The $10 belongs to whoever created it.

The notion that an economy is a zero-sum game with a fixed amount of wealth that belongs to "the people as a whole," or to the State, is ubiquitous among among the Left, and it is utter nonsense. Wealth is not manna from Heaven, a gift from God to be shared by all his children. It is all produced by particular people.
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