After reading more of this thread, I think @CIN has provided excellent and successful argumentation. I sure hope he doesn't give up philosophy, because he seems like a good philosopher. I certainly don't want to rehash the long argument between @CIN and @Peter Holmes, but it seems that a large part of the debate revolved around this argument from Peter:
- If it is fallacious to derive an "ought" from an "is", then objective morality fails.
- It is fallacious to derive an "ought" from an "is".
- Therefore, objective morality fails.
The problem is that premise (2) was never defended. As often happens, it was asserted as a dogma rather than defended as a premise. For example:
CIN wrote: ↑July 16th, 2021, 12:58 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑June 26th, 2021, 1:50 amCIN wrote: ↑July 5th, 2021, 12:16 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑June 26th, 2021, 1:50 am4 The is/ought barrier is insuperable. An argument that pretends it isn't, or that the barrier doesn't exist, begs the question and is therefore fallacious.
I think it is actually you that is begging the question here, by describing any attempt to cross the supposed barrier as a 'pretence'. That is something you can only judge by examining the attempt to see if it succeeds. If you think no such attempt could ever succeed, then the burden of proof that this is so rests on you.
Here's why the barrier is insuperable: a factual (is) premise can never entail a 'judgemental' (ought) conclusion. In other words, what ought to be the case can never follow deductively from what is the case. Any claim that it can must be a 'pretence', in the form of a question-begging fallacy. So this is not a matter of inductive overreach - needing pragmatic, case-by-case analysis.
Again you make a claim without giving reasons why I should accept it. Give me reasons why I should accept that a factual premise can't entail an 'ought' conclusion.
...we are given no reasons in support of premise (2). It is merely re-asserted at each juncture. Contrariwise, CIN gave various arguments and examples which purported to falsify premise (2). They were met with the same assertion that premise (2)
must be true. Therefore it seems to me that CIN's arguments were based on more fundamental premises and deeper reasoning.
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I want to press from a slightly different angle. There are many entry points into Peter's argument, but I want to pursue the idea that it proves too much. Namely, if we follow Peter's reasoning then it is not only objective morality that becomes impossible, but also all objectivity, including objective science.
Let's just take an empirical claim. Suppose there is a fruit sitting in front of Peter. Peter claims, "This is a tangerine." Peter's sister makes the counter-claim, "This is a clementine." Let's apply Peter's criteria:
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑July 18th, 2018, 8:23 am1 Take any assertion expressing a value judgement - slavery is wrong, this god is good, that painting is beautiful, happiness is better than unhappiness, health is better than sickness, life is preferable to death - and so on.
Rather than a value judgment we are taking a factual judgment, for my claim is that his criteria preclude all objectivity.
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑July 18th, 2018, 8:23 am2 To be objective - and so true or false - the assertion has to make a falsifiable claim about something - an 'object' of some kind. Ask yourself what that object is.
His claim about the fruit is presumably falsifiable. Check.
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑July 18th, 2018, 8:23 am3 The object can't be what the judgement is about - slavery, this god, that painting, happiness, health, life - and so on - because that is also the object of the contrary value judgement - slavery is right, this god is bad - and so on. Back to square one.
The judgment is about the object, which is also the object of the counter-claim. "Back to square one." We have already failed. According to Peter's criteria the nature of the piece of fruit is not an objective reality. Nevertheless, let's continue:
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑July 18th, 2018, 8:23 am4 And the object can't be the judgement itself: what justifies the judgement that this god is good is ... the goodness of this god - and so on. That just begs the question, going around in a circle.
It's hard to know what is meant by (4), but it seems to me that (4) also fails because the fruit itself is the crucial justifying factor. For example, "What justifies the judgment that this fruit is a tangerine is ... the tangerine-ness of the fruit - and so on."
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑July 18th, 2018, 8:23 am5 Realise this is a wild goose chase, because the fact/value barrier is insuperable, which is why value judgements can't be factual - and why moral values and judgements - and morality itself - can't be objective.
It is interesting to note that Peter has also violated the is-ought "fallacy." This is because he began with an "is": the existence of a piece of fruit. He moved to an "ought": "This is a tangerine". Why is it an "ought"? Because truth claims are teleological in the relevant ought-sense. The propositional truth claim entails the normative claim that objective and rational observers ought to recognize this as a tangerine. To claim that some proposition is true is to claim that one has accurately perceived reality and that other minds ought to come to the same conclusion if they studied the same phenomena. Truth claims are necessarily "ought"-claims on all rational agents. Indeed, his sister will feel this "ought" claim particularly acutely.
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑July 18th, 2018, 8:23 am
Dr Peter suggests this guaranteed cure for any strain of objectivism.
Truly, "
any strain."
The argument proves too much. If we follow Peter's reasoning all objectivity is impossible, including empirical and scientific objectivity. I think the reasons why this approach fails are interesting, but it seems prudent to start with a simple
reductio in a thread that is already 120 pages long!
-Leontiskos