Terrapin Station wrote: ↑March 30th, 2020, 7:31 pm
GE Morton wrote: ↑March 30th, 2020, 7:06 pm
Yikes, you're still peddling that foolishness, despite that it leads to a reductio ad absurdum?
There's no reductio ad absurdum.
Ah. Despite having outlined it several times, I suspected you did not understand why your thesis entails a
reductio. Or perhaps don't understand what a
reductio ad absurdum is.
A
reductio ad absurdum is an argument that yields a conclusion which is absurd; which is obviously, self-evidently, false.
Let's go through it again.
1. In order to communicate information via language, speaker and hearer must attach the same denotative meanings to the words employed.
2. In order for both speaker and hearer to attach the same meaning to a given word, that meaning must be public, i.e., accessible to and learnable by both speaker and hearer.
3. Meanings are "mental phenomena" in people's heads.
4. But "mental phenomena in people's heads" is inaccessible to anyone except the person whose head it is.
5. Hence (from 4) no hearer can know whether the meaning attached by a speaker to a given word is the same as the one he attaches to it.
6. Hence no hearer can know what a speaker is saying.
7. Hence no information can be communicated via language.
Which is absurd.
Your half-assed comments are certainly not going to change a view that I've had for decades and published on in peer-reviewed philosophy journals.
Oh, I realize that people can be very stubborn about abandoning views they've held for decades. Thomas Kuhn wrote a whole book on that subject.
In order for language to work to transmit information,
Language doesn't work by literally transmitting meanings.
Why do you keep changing "transmit information" to, "transmit meanings"?
As I've said before, there is no need to transmit any meanings in most verbal communications, because the hearers already know the meanings of the words employed. What is transmitted is
information about some state-of-affairs in the world.
However, in fact, language can also transmit meanings, if that is necessary or desired. That is what dictionaries do. (That "dog" means --->[dog] is itself a fact, a state-of-affairs in the world).
Meanings do not at all have to be the "same" (they can't literally be the same, because nominalism has things right) for communication to occur. All that's required for mutual understanding is that the parties involved feel that subsequent actions, including subsequent utterances of text and sound strings, is coherent and consistent, including with behavioral expectations. Whether meanings are similar is irrelevant to this.
Yes, they do have to be the same. If Alfie and Bruno both point to the same animal when asked, "What is the meaning of "dog"?, then the meanings they attach are the same --- in the only sense of "same" that is relevant. Those "subsequent actions" you mention certainly can demonstrate that speaker and hearer attach the same meaning to "dog." But they can't explain how it happens that they do. Is it just an accident? Of the infinite number of meanings Alfie might attach to that word, it just happens that he attaches the same meaning Bruno does?
Or does it happen because both Alfie and Bruno have
learned that meaning, which existed somewhere before either of them learned to speak?