jerlands:
This is ridiculous.
Okay jer, believe whatever you want to believe. There is solid academic scholarship to back up every ridiculous thing I have said. Of course this work is guide by intelligence and evidence rather than "intelligence of the heart".
If you're looking for specifics don't because it is a synthesis and not a single expression.
I take it as a basic rule of hermeneutics to pay attention to specifics. If you want to create a synthesis that ignores specifics that’s up to you. If you want to ignore history and scholarship that’s up to you.
Jesus was the word and any and all of the apostles testified to this.
This comes from the gospel of John. Nowhere in the other texts is there any support for this claim. John was not one of the apostles. But ignore those specifics if they get in the way of what you want to see.
A cake is not just flour but you have eggs and sugar, milk and butter etc.,. Get the picture?
Sure, you can bake the texts in order to get the picture you want, but ignore the specifics such as flour or eggs and you don’t have a cake.
What I can't fathom is stupidity as it is boundless.
Consider this an unofficial moderator’s warning. There is scholarly support for everything I have said. If you choose not to believe it, don’t, but don’t call me or what I say stupid.
John 1:14 King James Version (KJV)
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
You cite John as evidence that what I said is found in John is not found elsewhere in the Bible?
Think of Moses... The birth of a nation... God spoke to Moses... the word is the messenger that conveys the meaning.
If God spoke to Moses then God is the messenger. Moses is tasked with being the messenger to the people. Then is nothing in that message about the word made flesh or the only begotten son.
The question however is who the NT was addressing.
It is I think clear that the NT addresses the gentile Christians. The question that I have raised is whether what Paul tells his followers and what they in turn tell others is what Jesus told his disciples. If someone who had no preconceived notion of what the NT is supposed to be about, and three columns were made to compare are said to be the words of Jesus while he was alive, the words of Paul, and the words of John, I think it safe to say that this person would conclude that they were saying very different things.
Paul undoubtedly influenced Gentile populations but were the other apostles speaking to Jewish populations or were they addressing Gentile populations?
According to Matthew they were speaking to Jews. The message was that the Kingdom of heaven was at hand and to keep the Law:
"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished.Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. (Matthew 5:17-19)
It is easier for Heaven and Earth to pass away than for the smallest part of the letter of the law to become invalid. (Luke 16:17)
Has not Moses given you the law? Yet not one of you keeps the law. Why are you trying to kill me?” (John 7:19)
Paul, however, tells his followers:
For sin will have no dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace. (Romans 6:14)
Now you can ignore the details, as you must, if your primary motivation is to see the NT as a single whole, but if you pay attention to details, as you should, then we begin to see that attempts at synthesis, both those of the authors and reader, fail.
I think we have taken this as far as we can go. It may be your way to continue arguing without end, but I think we have reached the end.